Answer:
2.125
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
Selling price = Rs.80
Cost price = Rs.100
here, CP > SP
Now...
Loss ( L ) = CP - SP
= RS.100 - 80
= Rs.20
Now...
= 20 %
Answer:
μ = 1 The firm expects that one oil exploration will be successful.
v(x)= 0.9
Step-by-step explanation:
The first step is to define the random variable x as:
x: number of oil explorations being succesful
Then x can be take this values:
x = 0 , x =1 ... x =10
x is a binomially distributed random variable with parameters.
p = 0.1 and n=10
And the mean or the expected value of x is:
μ = E(x) = np
Then μ = 10*0.1 = 1
And the variance of x is:
V(x) = np(1-p)
V(x) = 10(0.1)(1-0.1)= 0.9
This equation is written in slope intercept form, y=mx+b, with m being the slope and b being the y-intercept.
The slope of the line is 1.5 and the y-intercept is -2. The answer is A.
I hope this helps ;)
7,4,9,8,4,4,6,6 mean,mode,median, and range
skad [1K]
Answer:
Mean: 6 Mode: 4 Median: 6 Range:5
Brainliest please :)
