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Marizza181 [45]
3 years ago
10

What is 78% of 30?

Mathematics
2 answers:
NeTakaya3 years ago
7 0

78% of 30 would be 23.4 jzjxjxjjxjxjjxjdjdjdj

RSB [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

78% of 30 is 23.4

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A lathe is set to cut bars of steel into lengths of 6 cm. The lathe is considered to be in perfect adjustment if the average len
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

t=\frac{5.97-6}{\frac{0.4}{\sqrt{93}}}=-0.723    

E. -0.723

df=n-1=93-1=92  

p_v =2*P(t_{(92)}  

Since the p value is very high we don't have enough evidence to conclude that the true mean for the lengths is different from 6 cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

Information provided

\bar X=5.97 represent the sample mean for the length

s=0.4 represent the sample standard deviation

n=93 sample size  

\mu_o =6 represent the value that we want to test

\alpha=0.05 represent the significance level

t would represent the statistic  

p_v represent the p value for the test

System of hypothesis

We need to conduct a hypothesis in order to check if the lathe is in perfect adjustment (6cm), then the system of hypothesis would be:  

Null hypothesis:\mu = 6  

Alternative hypothesis:\mu \neq 6  

since we don't know the population deviation the statistic is:

t=\frac{\bar X-\mu_o}{\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}}}  (1)  

Replacing in formula (1) we got:

t=\frac{5.97-6}{\frac{0.4}{\sqrt{93}}}=-0.723    

E. -0.723

P value

The degrees of freedom are given by:

df=n-1=93-1=92  

Since is a two tailed test the p value would be:  

p_v =2*P(t_{(92)}  

Since the p value is very high we don't have enough evidence to conclude that the true mean for the lengths is different from 6 cm.

5 0
3 years ago
Which is more 2 yards or 40 inches
MAVERICK [17]
1 yard = 36 inches
2 yards = 72 inches
Solution: 2 yards is more
3 0
2 years ago
I need help with q5
Roman55 [17]
Percent increase = ((new number - original number) / (original number)) x 100.

percent increase = ((3000 - 2500) / 2500)) x 100 =
                                   (500 / 2500)....x 100 =
                                     0.2 x 100 =
                                      20% increase <====
                                
7 0
3 years ago
Please help! Algebra 1 math Guaranteed brainliest!
Natali [406]
6√5 - 4√7 would be your answer. 
<em />I hope this helps love! :)
3 0
3 years ago
Keyla traveled 2155 kilometers by car to visit some relatives. If 1 km is approximately 0.62 miles, then what is the number of m
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

<em>1336miles.</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that;

1km represents 0.62miles

1km = 0.62miles

We are to express 2155kilometers in miles.

2155km = x miles

Find x:

Divide both equations;

1/2155 = 0.62/x

Cross multiply;

1 * x = 2155 * 0.62

x = 1,336.1miles

<em>Hence the correct option is 1336miles.</em>

4 0
3 years ago
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