All categories

3 years ago

C) What is the time interval in which the average velocity is

Physics

1 answer:

photoshop1234 [79]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Is always negative answer for you

You might be interested in

The shanghai maglev train is capable of reaching speeds of up to 350km h-1 what is the speed in m/h

LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

The shanghai maglev train is capable of reaching speeds of up to 217.48 in mph

217.48 mph

Explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

In a television picture tube, electrons strike the screen after being accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 27

Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

9.74 x 10^7 m/s

Explanation:

V = 27000 V

energy of electrons = e x V

K = 1.6 x 10^-19 x 27000 = 43200 x 10^-19 J

Energy = 1/2 m v^2

43200 x 10^-19 = 0.5 x 9.1 x 10^-31 x v^2

v^2 = 9.495 x 10^15

v = 9.74 x 10^7 m/s

4 0

4 years ago

A wheel is rotating freely at angular speed 530 rev/min on a shaft whose rotational inertia is negligible. A second wheel, initi

Grace [21]

Answer: $53\ rev/min$

Explanation:

Given

angular speed of wheel is $\omega_1 =530\ rev/min$

Another wheel of 9 times the rotational inertia is coupled with initial wheel

Suppose the initial wheel has moment of inertia as I

Coupled disc has $9I$ as rotational inertia

Conserving angular momentum,

$\Rightarrow I\omega_1=(I+9I)\omega_2\\\\\Rightarrow \omega_2=\dfrac{I}{10I}\times 530\\\\\Rightarrow \omega_2=53\ rev/min$

5 0

3 years ago

A 4.0-kg mass is moving with speed 2.0 m/s. A 1.0-kg mass is moving with speed 4.0 m/s. Both objects encounter the same constant

Kazeer [188]

Answer

given,

mass of object 1 = 4 Kg

Speed of object 1 = 2 m/s

mass of object 2 = 1 Kg

speed of object 2 = 4 m/s

KE of the object 1 = $\dfrac{1}{2}MV^2$

= $\dfrac{1}{2}\times 4 \times 2^2$

= 8 J

KE of the object 2 = $\dfrac{1}{2}MV^2$

= $\dfrac{1}{2}\times 1 \times 4^2$

= 8 J

Kinetic energy of both the object is same hence,Work done by both the object will also be same.

It is given that braking force is same in both cases.

So, distance travel by Both the object will be same.

6 0

4 years ago

Suppose you have a string of length LaTeX: LL clamped down on both sides. Is it possible for the wavelength of a standing wave o

mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Explanation:

For a string of length L clamped down on both ends , for fundamental mode of vibration

2 . λ / 4 = L

= λ / 2 = L

λ = 2 L

For other modes , the formula is

n . λ/2 = L where n is an integer .

λ = 2L / n

if n = 6

λ = 2L / 6

= L/3

So wavelength = L/3 is possible .

7 0

3 years ago