I think number #29 is A but may be B and number #30 is C
D.
Because it is the value when charms = 0
Answer:
1.2
Step-by-step explanation:
The variance of a binomial distribution is:
σ² = n p (1 − p)
where n is the number of trials and p is the probability of success.
Given n = 5 and p = 0.40:
σ² = 5 (0.40) (1 − 0.40)
σ² = 1.2
Answer is 1/12
Two ways to work this.
1) divide each of the given portions into 20 parts and add the resulting fractions.
.. (1 2/3)/20 = 1/20 + (2/3)*(1/20)
.. = 1/20 + 1/30
.. = 3/60 + 2/60
.. = 5/60 = 1/12
2) convert 1 2/3 to an improper fraction and divide by 20.
.. (1 2/3)/20 = (5/3)*(1/20)
.. = (5*1)/(3*20)
.. = 5/60 = 1/12
