Factor out the 4 in both equations
8a^2-20^2=(2^2 times a^2 times 2)-(2^2 times 5)
therefor it is also equal to
(2a)^2 times 2-(2^2 times 5)
we can force it into a difference of 2 perfect squares which is a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)
(2a√2)^2-(2√5)^2=((2a√2)-(2√5))((2a√2)+(2√5))
He will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning next week.
There are 10 balls in each container; for 6 containers, this gives us 10^6 = 1,000,000. There is 1 correct combination of balls, so his chance the first week is 1/1,000,000.
The second week, 1 ball is removed from each container; this will give us 9^6 = 531,441 chances. There is 1 correct combination, so he will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning.
Answer:
66
Step-by-step explanation:
multiply everything together
The answer to the question is D
Answer:
infinite
Step-by-step explanation:
infinite
but solving for it we can get
3x + 8 = 3x + 8 (divided both sides by 2)
3x = 3x (subtracted 8)
x = x
1 = 1
therefore, for all values of x, the equation will be true so there are
infinite solutions
