If you add 1 to half of 1, then half of 1 to the previous number, and so on, will you ever get to 2?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Diano4ka-milaya [45]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: yes

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s 1+1/2= 1 1/2+1/2=2

lisov135 [29]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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The sum of two confescutive integers is at least 46. What is the least possibly pair of integers?

dezoksy [38]

An integer is a whole number. Sum means to add and since they are consecutive, there is only a difference of 1 between them.

1) 21 + 23: not consecutive
2) 23+24= 47: has to be at least 46
3) 22+23= 45: has to be at least 46
4) 24+25= 49: has to be at least 46

So we have two possibilities: either #2 or #4. Find least possible pair of integers.

x= first integer
x+1= second integer

x + (x+1) >= 46
2x + 1 >=46
2x>=45
x>=22.5

Answer:
The first integer has to be greater than or equal to 22.5. Since integers are whole numbers, round up to the next whole number. The least possible integers are #2) 23 and 24.

Hope this helps! :)

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3 years ago

1. 650 - 700 - 800 = ?<br>2. 25 - 45 + 23 ＝?

butalik [34]

carry on learning

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0

laila [671]

First, lets note that $tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)$ . This leads us with the following problem:

$cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0$

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

$cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)$

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

$\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1$

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

$cot(\theta)=1$

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
$\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}$

In general we have $cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}$ , the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture: