Im not sure, sorry, I wish I could help
Answer:
132,000$ will be recorded by west as amortization expense for the year.
Explanation:
Depreciation/amortization is systematic allocation of cost of asset over its useful life. In this case asset cost is not given so we assume that PV of lease payment is equal to market value (660,000 dollars) of asset.
In case of leased asset the useful life taken for calculation of depreciation is lower of 1) Useful life 2) Lease term as per applicable accounting standards.
So we have taken 5 years to charge depreciation on Straight line method.
Hence by dividing 660000 by five we get our answer.
Answer:
Explanation:
1.Convenient: Indirect taxes are more convenient to pay. ...
2.Less Pinching: The announcement effect of indirect taxes does not provoke resentment, because they cause less annoyance to the public as they are not felt directly. ...
3.Not Easily Evadeable: ...
4.Broad based: ...
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Answer:
$39,345,664.93
Explanation:
The computation of the company worth today is as follows:
Present value of revenues after tax is
= $3,700,000 × 1.46 × (1 - 0.25) ÷ (0.07 - 0.018)
= $77,913,461.54
And, Present value of costs after tax is
= $3,700,000 × 0.82 × (1 -0.25) ÷ (0.07-0.011)
= $38,567,796.61
So, the company worth today is
= $77,913,461.54 - $38,567,796.61
= $39,345,664.93
Answer:
Explanation:
The $10,000 is the face value of the bond. Using a financial calculator, input the following to calculate the price at a year before maturity; i.e. at year 9;
Time to maturity; N = 10 - 9 = 1
Annual interest rate; I/Y = 9%
Annual coupon payment; PMT = 0
Face value of the bond; FV = 10,000
then compute present value ; CPT PV = $9,174.31
Therefore, you will pay less than $10,000 for the bond and the price would be as above $9,174.31
