Answer:
no
Explanation:
An investment is an asset or item that is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or appreciate in the future.
The statement that would describe the shift from D1 to D2 is Demand for the product increased.
<h3>Why was there a shift from D1 to D2?</h3>
D2 is a curve that is to the right of D1 which means that it represents a higher level of demand for goods and services.
This means that for the demand to move from D1 to D2, there must have been an increase in the demand for the good or service and this could have been for any number of reasons including a reduction in the price of complimentary goods.
Find out more on determinants of demand at brainly.com/question/1245771
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Answer:
The correct answer is: $12,000
Explanation:
uncollectible debt = 6% of net sales
= 6/100 × 200,000
= 0.06 × 200,000 = $12,000
Therefore, $12,000 will be removed (debited) from the bad debt expense because it is uncollectible, and it is added (credited) to the Allowance for Doubtful accounts as bad debt to be paid for in the bad debt reserve account.
Answer:
A. Competitive markets face perfectly elastic demand and marginal revenue, while monopolies face downward-sloping demand and marginal revenue.
Explanation:
In the case when competitive firms and monopolies generated at the level in which the marginal cost is equivalent to marginal revenue keeping the other things constant so the price should be less in the competitive market as compared to the monopoly because in the competitive markets it face perfectly elastic demand but in the monopoly it face the down ward sloping demand curve
Therefore the option a is correct
