Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Debt = D ÷ (E + D)
= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)
= 0.4444
Now
Weight of equity = 1 - Debt
= 1 - 0.4444
= 0.5556
As per Dividend discount model
Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)
Cost of equity = 11%
Cost of debt
K = N
Let us assume the par value be $1,000
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N
k=1
K =25
$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25
k=1
YTM = 9
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 9 × (1 - 0.21)
= 7.11
WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)
= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556
= 9.27%
As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion
Answer:
The future value of the $200 invested yearly for 4 years at 8% is $973.32
Explanation:
The future value of an immediate annuity is given by the formula = (1+r)*[P*((1+r)^n-1)/r]
P=is the periodic payment of $200
r=rate of return=8 percent
n=number of years=4
By slotting the variables into the formula we have:
Fv=(1+0.08)*(200*((1+0.08)^4-1)/0.08)
FV=$973.32
Judging by the concept of time value of money, it is expected that the sum invested at interest would have been much more at maturity of the investment as $1 today should give a lot more than $1 in future.
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Explanation:
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