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lidiya [134]
3 years ago
7

What do smart companies do to account for depreciation?

Business
1 answer:
Hitman42 [59]3 years ago
5 0
C. put money in savings
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How is the dual credit program different from the AP program?
olga55 [171]

AP courses are part of the College Board organization that requires students to take a rigorous test at the end of the course to potentially earn college credit. A dual credit course on the other hand is an official course at Loyola University Chicago.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Coronado Company applies manufacturing overhead to jobs on the basis of machine hours used. Overhead costs are estimated to tota
Anni [7]

Answer:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $2.32 per machine hour.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Overhead costs are estimated to total $292,552 for the year, and machine usage is estimated at 126,100 hours.

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 292,552/126,100= $2.32 per machine hour.

5 0
4 years ago
The three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert ____; second step, convert ___
Vladimir [108]

Answer:

The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

Explanation:

A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.

A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.

In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.

Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

7 0
3 years ago
An entrepreneurial alliance between an innovator who has created at least one successful store and wants to grow the business an
balandron [24]

Answer:

Franchising

Explanation:

The innovator who wants to grow his one successful store and business is referred to as the franchisor while the partner who is managing a new store of the same type in a new location is called the franchisee

Franchising represents a business relationship between two people or in this case two entrepreneurs such that the owner of the franchise (the franchisor) is able to enhance the growth and distribution of his products through the efforts of the franchisee who is also called an affiliated dealer.

The franchisor provides adequate license and authorization to the franchisee who also provides a broader market and growth opportunity for the products of the franchisor.  The franchisor will also make trainings, products, organisation and even monetary rewards available to the dealer for his services.

8 0
4 years ago
A company purchased factory equipment on April 1, 2019 for $160,000. It is estimated that the equipment will have a $20,000 salv
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

The correct answer:

$14,000 (b.)      

Explanation:

Depreciation is an accounting method of allocation of cost to a tangible asset, where the recorded cost of a fixed asset is reduced in a systemic manner, until the value of the asset becomes zero is negligible.

In the straight-line basis of calculating depreciation, the difference between the cost of an asset and its expected salvage value is divided by the number of years it is expected to be used.

Mathematically, it is calculated as:

Depreciation of an asset  = (purchase price - salvage value) ÷ estimated useful life.

Purchase price = $160,000

salvage value = $20,000

useful life = 10 years

∴ Depreciation = (160,000 - 20,000) ÷ 10

= 140,000 ÷ 10 = $14,000.

This means that at the end of every year, the value of the equipment reduces by a price worth $14,000.

3 0
3 years ago
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