Answer:
B) $114,000
Explanation:
To calculate the operating cash flows using the top down approach we can use the following equation:
operating cash flow = increase in total sales - increase in total expenses - increase in taxes paid
operating cash flow = $975,000 - $848,000 - ($154,000 - $141,000) = $975,000 - $848,000 - $13,000 = $114,000
I didn't include depreciation since it is normally included to calculate the increase in taxes but taxes were already given.
The statement that ten percent of your grade for this assignment is based on your explanation of two basic principles of communication
is false because the answer is based on the grading rubric
of the week one assignment that was given.
Investment banks help companies to purchase, sell and make investments using bonds while commercial banks are concerned on managing deposits on both savings and checking account.
Investment banks aid companies on bringing their investments on public offers; commercial banks are focused on providing security for the clienteles money.
Investment banks have some degree of freedom in choosing their own strategies while commercial banks have more risks because they are open to public transactions.
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Basic models sell for $ 44 per unit with variable costs of $ 25 per unit. Deluxe models sell for $ 52 per unit with variable costs of $ 25 per unit. Total fixed costs for the company are $1,323. Gabe Industries typically sells three Basic models for every Deluxe model.
First, we need to calculate the weighted sales participation:
Basic= 3/4= 0.75
Deluxe= 1/4= 0.25
Now, we need to calculate the weighted average selling price and variable cost:
weighted average selling price= (selling price* weighted sales participation)= (44*0.75 + 52*0.25)= 46
weighted average variable cost= (variable cost* weighted sales participation)= (25*0.75 + 25*0.25)= 25
Now, we can calculate the break-even point in units:
Break-even point (units)= Total fixed costs / (weighted average selling price - weighted average variable expense)
Break-even point= 1,323/ (46 - 25)= 63 units
Explanation:
Since the cash flows are given in the question for the Investment A and the Investment B
So, the present value could be find out by multiplying the each year cash inflows with its discounted factor i.e 9%
So that the present value could come
The discount factor should be computed by
= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years
The attachment is shown below:
