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Nonamiya [84]
3 years ago
9

West Company estimates that overhead costs for the next year will be $3,800,000 for indirect labor and $970,000 for factory util

ities. The company uses machine hours as its overhead allocation base. If 106,000 machine hours are planned for this next year, what is the company's plantwide overhead rate?
Business
1 answer:
nalin [4]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: $45 per machine hour

Explanation:

Company uses machine hours as its overhead allocation base and there were 106,000 machine hours planned.

The overheads are $3,800,000 for indirect labor and $970,000 for factory utilities.

The rate will therefore be;

= Total Overhead / Machine hours

= (3,800,000 + 970,000) / 106,000

= $45 per machine hour

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Answer: c. If their maturities and other characteristics were the same, a 5% coupon bond would have more price risk than a 10% coupon bond.

Explanation:

Price risk of a bond is the risk that the bond changes price or rather the degree of price volatility. Bond prices change in reaction to market interest rates with higher rates meaning lower prices and lower rates meaning higher prices.

When the market interest rates rise above the Coupon on a bond, the bond price will fall below par and when the interest rates are below the coupon, the bond will be above par.

A 5% coupon bond will be more prone to changes in prices because market interest rates are generally low and fluctuate below 10% which means that they will affect the 5% bond more than the 10% because there are better chances of rates rising above or falling below 5% than there are of 10%.

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3 years ago
Simpkins Corporation does not pay any dividends because it is expanding rapidly and needs to retain all of its earnings. However
suter [353]

Answer:

The stock will trade for 4.30 dollars in the market

Explanation:

The stock will be valued at the discounted value of their future cash flow.

w calculate the cas flow by multiplying by the grow rate given.

Then we discount using the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $0.5000  

time   3.00  

rate  0.18

\frac{0.5}{(1 + 0.18)^{3} } = PV  

PV   0.30  

Then, for the entire of the dividend after year 6th we use the gordon model:

dividends / (rate - grow) and then we discount that

\frac{dividends}{return - growh}

Y# Cashflow Discounted

0 0          

1 0        

2 0          

3 0.5                 0.304315436

4 0.825         0.425525822

5 1.36125          0.595014921

6 1.4565375 2.971555503

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grigory [225]

Dafuq is this dumb site. This is some bull the verified answers where always wrong like dafuq is the point.


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I don't know but where can i buy

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luda_lava [24]

Answer: Option (C) is correct.

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