The answer is C. 8
4/2 = 2
2+6 = 8
Let me know if you have any questions!
Answer:
-11/4
Step-by-step explanation:
m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
m=(2-57)/(23-3)
m=-55/20
simplify
m=-11/4
Please mark me as Brainliest if you're satisfied with the answer.
Use the formula y2-y1/x2-x1.
3-3/-4-8
0/-12
The slope is 0, so the line is horizontal.
Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
