Well we can say that they didn't BOTH ban pools or trusts, and they didn't BOTH create commissions, but only the interstate commerce act solely regulated railroads, But they both supported monopolies because working with railroad industries the way the commerce act did was monopolistic and the Sherman antitrust act supported some business activities to be competitive to be monopolistic. SO choice number 3 is the correct answer <span />
Numerous originalists would reply "yes," on the grounds that legal audit isn't listed as an energy of the Judicial Branch in the Constitution.
Then again, the legal audit was at that point a setup training when the Constitution was composed, and the Framers, a significant number of whom were attorneys with information of court method, didn't expressly disallow it. Article III makes no say of how the Judicial Branch should practice statute. The absence of direction has a tendency to infer the Framers deliberately permitted adaptability and a level of independence in deciding the courts' operation. In the event that they had no aim for the Judicial Branch to go about as a mind the energy of the other two branches, they could have set more unequivocal rules for the legal to take after.
<span>The correct answer for this question is C - If I worked for a government agency that regulated the buying and selling in the country, I would be serving the governmental purpose which refers to the distribution of resources.</span>
Answer:
Nazi idealized the Germans who were considered "pure".
Explanation:
This in turn caused them to start harming Jews who were not technically considered "pure" in their eyes.
