Answer:
0.3597 = 35.97% probability that roommate A wins the game and thus does not have to wash the dishes.
Step-by-step explanation:
Independent events:
If two events are independent, the probability of both happening is the multiplication of their probabilities.
Rock-paper-scissors rules:
A player that choose rocks beats one who chooses scissors.
A player that choose paper beats one who chooses rocks.
A player that choose scissors beats one who chooses paper.
Probability that roommate A wins the game and thus does not have to wash the dishes.
3 possible events:
Roommate A - Rocks(21% of the time) and Roommate B - Scissors(18% of the time)
So
Roommate A - Paper(39% of the time) and Roommate B - Rocks(61% of the time).
So
Roommate A - Scissors(40% of the time) and Roommate B - Paper(21% of the time).
So
Probability of roommate A winning:
0.3597 = 35.97% probability that roommate A wins the game and thus does not have to wash the dishes.
Answer:
you are good but not good
you are bad but not bad
you are not handsome but handsome
Step-by-step explanation:
this is my answer :D
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming the number of tickets sales from Mondays is normally distributed. the formula for normal distribution would be applied. It is expressed as
z = (x - u)/s
Where
x = ticket sales from monday
u = mean amount of ticket
s = standard deviation
From the information given,
u = 500 tickets
s = 50 tickets
We want to find the probability that the mean will be greater than 510. It is expressed as
P(x greater than 510) = 1 - P(x lesser than or equal to 510)
For x = 510
z = (510 - 500)/50 = 0.2
Looking at the normal distribution table, the probability corresponding to the z score is 0.9773
P(x greater than 510) = 1 - 0.9773 = 0.0227
The one time investment of $1000 would worth $10285.72 after 40 years at 6% rate of return
What is annual compounding?
Annual compounding means that the number of times interest is compounded annually is once, compared to semiannual compounding where the interest on the investment is calculated twice a year.
The worth of the investment after 40 years means its future value after having invested $1000 for 40 years using the below formula for future value of a single cash flow:
FV=PV*(1+r)^N
FV=future worth of investment=unknown
PV=initial investment=$1000
r=rate of return=6%
N=number of years of investment=40
FV=$1000*(1+6%)^40
FV=$1000*1.06^40
FV=$1000* 10.2857179371259
FV=$10285.72
Find out more about future value on :brainly.com/question/24703884
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Answer:
100
Step-by-step explanation:
10x10=100
