Any help is useful Equilateral triangle with a side of 16mm and was 155 mm long

Instead of using the values {1,2,3,4,5,6} on dice, suppose a pair of dice have the following: {1,2,2,3,3,4} on one die and {1,3,

ozzi

Step-by-step explanation:

Sample space, S = {(1,1),(1,3),(1,4),(1,5),(1,6),(1,8),(2,1),(2,3),(2,4),(2,5),(2,6),(2,8),(2,1),(2,3),(2,4),(2,5),(2,6),(2,8),(3,1),(3,3),(3,4),(3,5),(3,6),(3,8),(3,1),(3,3),(3,4),(3,5),(3,6),(3,8),(4,1),(4,3),(4,4),(4,5),(4,6),(4,8)}

These dice will give a sum of 2 with N={(1,1)}, which only has 1 combination

Thus, the probability of rolling a sum of 2 with these dice is

$\frac{1}{36}$

8 0

3 years ago

For a certain candy, 20% of the pieces are yellow, 15% are red, 20% are blue, 20% are green, and the rest are brown. a

OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question we are given the percentages of each of the types of candies in the bag except for brown. Since the sum of all the percentages equals 75% and brown is the remaining percent then we can calculate that brown is (100-75 = 25%) 25% of the bag. Now we can show the probabilities of getting a certain type of candy by placing the percentages over the total percentage (100%).

Brown: $\frac{25}{100}$
Yellow or Blue: $\frac{20}{100} +\frac{20}{100} = \frac{40}{100}$ ....add the numerators

Not Green: $\frac{80}{100}$ .... since the sum of all the rest is 80%

Stiped: $\frac{25}{100}$ .... there are 0 striped candies.

Assuming the ratios/percentages of the candies stay the same having an infinite amount of candy will not affect the probabilities. That being said in order to calculate consecutive probability of getting 3 of a certain type in a row we have to multiply the probabilities together. This is calculated by multiplying the numerators with numerators and denominators with denominators.

3 Browns: $\frac{25*25*25}{100*100*100} = \frac{15,625}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.5625}{100}$

the 1st and 3rd are red while the middle is any. We multiply 15% * (total of all minus red which is 85%) * 15% like so.

$\frac{15*85*15}{100*100*100} = \frac{19,125}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.9125}{100}$

None are Yellow: multiply the percent of all minus yellow three times.

$\frac{80*80*80}{100*100*100} = \frac{512,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{51.2}{100}$

At least 1 green: multiply the percent of green by 100% twice, since the other two can by any

$\frac{20*100*100}{100*100*100} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{20}{100}$

4 0

3 years ago

X+1.793=2.42

Varvara68 [4.7K]

The right answer is
0.627

4 0

3 years ago

Is this a function??

Blizzard [7]

Yes this is a function because the definition of a function is if the x doesn’t repeat and we can test this with the vertical line test that states that if you put an imaginary line where the points are the x shouldn’t repeat in this case this is true as the x doesn’t repeat

Your welcome

8 0

3 years ago

Solve for z: -4 - (z - 6) = 12

aksik [14]

Answer:

z = -10

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS
Equality Properties

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define equation

-4 - (z - 6) = 12

Step 2: Solve for z

Distribute negative: -4 - z + 6 = 12
Combine like terms: -z + 2 = 12
Subtract 2 on both sides: -z = 10
Divide -1 on both sides: z = -10

Step 3: Check

Plug in z to verify it's a solution.

Substitute: -4 - (-10 - 6) = 12
Subtract: -4 - (-16) = 12
Simplify: -4 + 16 = 12
Add: 12 = 12

Here we see that 12 does indeed equal 12.

∴ z = -10 is a solution of the equation.

7 0

3 years ago

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