Answer:
which is the best choice to explain why human resource manager is so important to organizations?
Human resource manager maintains the influx of the organization, they help in recruitment process as well as exempt or sack those that are not needed anymore in the organization.
Explanation:
Answer:
Proactive
Explanation:
Proactive change is the change that occurs when an organisation makes different modifications to to a work place and methods.
Most organisations carry out proactive changes due to the following reasons:
1) Gaining entry into a new market.
2) Change in the normal business condition.
3) Acquiring operational capabilities.
Proactive changes helps to identify new innovation for the growth of the company, it also allows for flexibility and better internal understanding among employees.
Answer:
Asset allocation.
Explanation:
A basic decision that every investor must make is how to distribute his or her investable founds amongst the various asset classes available in the marketplace.
-Stocks
-Fixed income
-Cash equivalents
-Alternative assets
-Real estate
The strategic allocation is the proportion of wealth the investor decides to place in each of these asset classes. It is something also referred to as the investor´s long term normal allocation because it is presumed to be the baseline allocation that will remain in place until the investor´s life circumstances change appreciably.
Answer: template method
Explanation:
The bottom-up approach for estimating times and costs that uses costs from past projects that were similar to the current project is known as template method.
It should be noted that estimating time and cost are vital because it helps schedule work, develop needs of cash flow and show progress of a project.
Answer:
Longly will receive $1,817.43 from selling the bond.
Explanation:
As the coupon rate is 8%; we have annual coupon payment = 2,000 x 8% = $160.
The price of the bond Longly will receive is equal to the present value of 20 annual coupon payment plus the present value of $2,000 face value repayment in 20 years time; with the two streams of cash flow discounting at the market rate at the date of issuing 9%; which is calculated as:
[ ( 160/9%) x [ 1 - 1.09^(-20) ] ] + ( 2,000 / 1.09^20 ) = $1,817.43.
So, the answer is $1,817.43.