Answer: see below
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
Write each equation in y = mx + b format where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Left side: -4 ≤ x < -1
If you continue the line through the y-axis it will pass through (0, 4) --> b = 4
The rise over run is -1 over 1 --> m = -1
y = (-1)x + (4) --> y = -x + 4
Right side: -1 < x < 4
The line passes through (0,0) --> b = 0.
The rise over run is -1 over 1 --> m = -1
y = (-1)x + (0) --> y = -x
Answer:
x=75
Step-by-step explanation:
The two-dimensional figures would be;
Rectangles and Triangles
Rectangles would be front, back and bottom
Triangles would be the 2 right and left sides.
For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
brainly.com/question/1580153
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