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3 years ago

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Please show your work :)

1 answer:

saul85 [17]3 years ago

3 0

1. Slope-intercept form is y=mx+b, where m=slope and b=y-intercept. To answer this question, plug in the values they have given you.

y=mx+b
y=1/4x-5

2. To write an equation in slope-intercept form when given two points, use m=y2-y1/x2-x1

Remember: in an ordered pair, x comes first then y.

Plug the y- and x-values in. So, y2=6, y1=2 and x2=-2, x1=9

6-(-)2/-2-9= - 4/11.

The slope of your next equation would be m= - 4/11

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

Let X be a Bernoulli rv with pmf as in Example 3.18. a. Compute E(X2 ). b. Show that V(X) 5 p(1 2 p). c. Compute E(X79).

spayn [35]

The Bernoulli distribution is a distribution whose random variable can only take 0 or 1

The value of E(x2) is p
The value of V(x) is p(1 - p)
The value of E(x79) is p

<h3>How to compute E(x2)</h3>

The distribution is given as:

p(0) = 1 - p

p(1) = p

The expected value of x2, E(x2) is calculated as:

$E(x^2) = \sum x^2 * P(x)$

So, we have:

$E(x^2) = 0^2 * (1- p) + 1^2 * p$

Evaluate the exponents

$E(x^2) = 0 * (1- p) + 1 * p$

Multiply

$E(x^2) = 0 +p$

Add

$E(x^2) = p$

Hence, the value of E(x2) is p

<h3>How to compute V(x)</h3>

This is calculated as:

$V(x) = E(x^2) - (E(x))^2$

Start by calculating E(x) using:

$E(x) = \sum x * P(x)$

So, we have:

$E(x) = 0 * (1- p) + 1 * p$

$E(x) = p$

Recall that:

$V(x) = E(x^2) - (E(x))^2$

So, we have:

$V(x) = p - p^2$

Factor out p

$V(x) = p(1 - p)$

Hence, the value of V(x) is p(1 - p)

<h3>How to compute E(x79)</h3>

The expected value of x79, E(x79) is calculated as:

$E(x^{79}) = \sum x^{79} * P(x)$

So, we have:

$E(x^{79}) = 0^{79} * (1- p) + 1^{79} * p$

Evaluate the exponents

$E(x^{79}) = 0 * (1- p) + 1 * p$

Multiply

$E(x^{79}) = 0 + p$

Add

$E(x^{79}) = p$

Hence, the value of E(x79) is p

Read more about probability distribution at:

brainly.com/question/15246027

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3 years ago