For a line to be parallel it has to have the same slope as the original line. so the slope is 1/2
Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables
with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that
We need to proof that
by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:


The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

And for the variance of Z we can do this:
![Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29_%20%3D%20E%28N%29%20Var%28X%29%20%2B%20Var%20%28N%29%20%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20)
![Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5Bp%281-p%29%5D%20%2B%20Mq%281-q%29%20p%5E2)
And if we take common factor
we got:
![Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5B%281-p%29%20%2B%20%281-q%29p%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-p%20%2Bp-pq%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-pq%5D)
And as we can see then we can conclude that 
Answer:
A) 2x³+11x²+8x-16
Step-by-step explanation:
When you multiply s(x) by t(x) you get something like this:

The horizontal stretch is the correct answer. A period is the distance on the x-axis that it takes for the tangent or cotangent function to repeat itself. Stretching it out horizontally will lengthen that distance and therefore change the period.
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