Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
$1.3794
Explanation:
The computation of the projected dividend for the coming year is shown below:
Last year dividend paid = Do
Expected Dividend in Year 1 (D1) = Do ( 1+g) = Do × 1.32
Dividend in Year 2 (D2) = Do ( 1+g)^2 = Do × 1.32^2
Dividend in Year 3 (D3) = Do ( 1+g)^3 = Do × 1.32^3
Dividend in year 4 , (D4) = D3 × (1+g) = Do × 1.32^3 × 1.22
Now the price at year 4 is
P4 = D4 × (1+g) ÷ ( R-g )
= Do × 1.32^3 × 1.22 × (1 + 0.07 ) ÷ ( 0.10 - 0.07 )
= Do × 100.08
Use Gordon Growth Model
The Current Price of Stock is
= D1 ÷ ( 1+ R)^1 +D2 ÷ ( 1+ R)^2 + D3 ÷ ( 1+ R)^3 + D4 ÷ ( 1+ R)^4 + P4 ÷ ( 1+ R)^4
$78 = Do ( 1.32 ÷ 1.1 + 1.32^2 ÷ 1.1 ^2 + 1.32^3 ÷ 1.1^3 +1.32^3 × 1.22 ÷ 1.1^4 + 100 .08 ÷ 1.1^4)
$78 = Do ( 1.2 +1.44 + 1.728 + 1.9165 + 68.36 )
Do = $1.045
Now
Projected Dividend for Year 1 is
= Do × 1.32
= $1.045 × 1.32
= $1.3794
Answer:
The correct answer is (A)
Explanation:
Monopoly and monopolistic competition are similar in many ways. In both type of markets the firms are usually the price makers. Being the only firm in the market gives them an opportunity to earn abnormal profits and in both cases firms earn abnormal profits. Perfect competition is a type of market that is totally different in terms of number of sellers and buyers. In perfect competition firms are the price takers.
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Explanation
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
The plans regarding the contributions made to the 401(k) plans are directed by the participant, who is also known as an employee of the organization.
<h3>Who is a 401(k) plan?</h3>
A 401(k) can be referred to as a feature of a profit-sharing plan that enables the employees to make a partial contribution of their wages to their individual accounts.
An employee is referred to as a participant for the purpose of this plan. It is further to be noted that this plan is as per the voluntary directions of the participant.
Hence, it holds true that majority of the 401(k) plans are participant directed.
Learn more about 401(k) plans here:
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