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zimovet [89]
2 years ago
6

Martika surfs with her friends at Virginia Beach. Her friend, Mark caught 8 waves out of 20 possible waves to ride in the shore.

They plan to stay out in the water for 50 more waves. How many of the 50 waves do you predict Mark will catch?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Vlada [557]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

40 waves

Step-by-step explanation:

Prob (Mark catches waves) = Times waves caught / Total waves =  8 / 20 =  4 / 5 = 20%

Predicted waves out of 50 , caught = 4 / 5 or 20% of 50  = (4 / 5) x 50 = 40

  • Alternatively, multiplying numerator & denominator of wave catch probability ie 4 / 5 with 10 each , we get (4 x 10) / (5 x 10) = 40 / 50 . This also signifies 40 out of 50 waves are predicted to be caught.
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Given f(x) = 3x- 1 and g(x) = 2x-3, for which value of x does g(x) = f(2)?
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer: x = 4

Step-by-step explanation: f(2) = 3(2)-1 = 5. Meaning x needs to be a value that makes g(x) = 5. You can set them up equal to each other 5 = 2x-3 and solve. You end up getting x = 4.

6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!! WILL THANK AND MARK BRAINIEST!!!! Match the properties for 2.8 + 6.7 - 8.4 - 4.1
uysha [10]
Comunitie and assoiative

3 0
3 years ago
0.5x -2 = 1.5x + 0.15
frutty [35]

Answer: x=−2.15

Step-by-step explanation : Alright Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

0.5x−2=1.5x+0.15

Step 1: Subtract 1.5x from both sides.

0.5x−2−1.5x=1.5x+0.15−1.5x

−x−2=0.15

Step 2: Add 2 to both sides.

−x−2+2=0.15+2

−x=2.15

Step 3: Divide both sides by -1.

−x

−1

=

2.15

−1

x=−2.15<em>        hope this helped!- Alex</em><u> </u>

8 0
3 years ago
Please answer as fast as possible thanks
svp [43]

The correct answer is the 2nd choice because -1/6 is closer to 0 and the surface of the pool would be considered 0. -4/6 is farther away from 0 so it is less.

3 0
2 years ago
A ball slides up a frictionless ramp. It is then rolled without slipping and with the same initial velocity up another frictionl
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Rolling case achieves greater height than sliding case

Step-by-step explanation:

For sliding ball:

- When balls slides up the ramp the kinetic energy is converted to gravitational potential energy.

- We have frictionless ramp, hence no loss due to friction.So the entire kinetic energy is converted into potential energy.

- The ball slides it only has translational kinetic energy as follows:

                                   ΔK.E = ΔP.E

                                   0.5*m*v^2 = m*g*h

                                    h = 0.5v^2 / g

For rolling ball:

- Its the same as the previous case but only difference is that there are two forms of kinetic energy translational and rotational. Thus the energy balance is:

                                  ΔK.E = ΔP.E

                                  0.5*m*v^2 + 0.5*I*w^2 = m*g*h

- Where I: moment of inertia of spherical ball = 2/5 *m*r^2

             w: Angular speed = v / r

                               0.5*m*v^2 + 0.2*m*v^2 = m*g*h

                               0.7v^2 = g*h

                               h = 0.7v^2 / g

- From both results we see that 0.7v^2/g for rolling case is greater than 0.5v^2/g sliding case.

4 0
2 years ago
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