Answer:
ty for the free points
Step-by-step explanation:
sognriogifninbfiodne0irnfdnre0gindfinbh0ibndf0ienb0idfn0ihndfibnce0binfkdbnd-indfpibne0tbdnbn-ebntenipdfptendfpiebdfnprfsrpgrrnip
80
Step-by-step explanation:
5×6 = 30 and 30×8 = 240 divide that by three you get 80
Answer:
B because you multiply all the similar numbers together then at the end you add them all up.Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
