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2 years ago

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Jones has received a raise of $1000 dollars for the last five years, and she will continue to receive such raises for each of th

e next ten years. Four years ago, she made one-fourth as much money as she will make five years from now. How much does she make now?

1 answer:

Debora [2.8K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

1500

Step-by-step explanation:

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Help me on this question

olganol [36]

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the given data sets have x-values that are sequential with a difference of 1. That makes it easy to determine the sort of sequence the y-values make.

<u>first choice</u>: the y-values have a common difference of -2. This will be matched by a linear model.

<u>second choice</u>: the y-values have a common difference of +2. Again, this will be matched by a linear model.

<u>third choice</u>: the y-values have a common ratio of -2. This will be matched by an exponential model.

<u>fourth choice</u>: the y-value differences are 3, 5, 7, increasing by a constant amount (2). This is characteristic of a sequence that has a quadratic model.

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3 years ago

What is the answer? Links will be reported. ( BRANLIEST )

qaws [65]

Answer:

$- 1 \frac{1}{8} m + \frac{3}{10} \\$

Step-by-step explanation:

$\frac{7}{8} m + \frac{9}{10} - 2m - \frac{3}{5} \\ \frac{7}{8} m - 2m + \frac{9}{10} - \frac{3}{5} \\ \frac{7}{8} m - \frac{2m \times 8}{1 \times 8} + \frac{9}{10} - \frac{3 \times 2}{5 \times 2} \\ \frac{7m - 16m}{8} + \frac{9 - 6}{10} \\ - \frac{9}{8} m + \frac{3}{10} \\ - 1 \frac{1}{8} m + \frac{3}{10} \\$

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2 years ago

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An entertainment firm offers several DJ choices and light shows that range in price based on the rental time period. The DJ's co

snow_tiger [21]

From $378 (min) to $528 (max) per night

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Day, everything at a store is on sale. The store offers a 20% discount.

Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

$14.40

Step-by-step explanation:

$18-20%=$14.40

4 0

2 years ago

How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0

laila [671]

First, lets note that $tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)$ . This leads us with the following problem:

$cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0$

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

$cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)$

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

$\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1$

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

$cot(\theta)=1$

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
$\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}$

In general we have $cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}$ , the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

4 0

3 years ago