The way to do this mathematically is by incorporating the Order of Operations.(Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally) This stands for (do first:) Parenthesis, then exponents, after that multiplication, now division, then addition, and finally subtraction. The side on the right then equals -5 while the side on the right equals -6. The greater value is the left side. If you have any other questions, just ask me!
Correct answer is D).
A) and C) are polynomials, so x∈R, in B) we have √x, and in this case x ≥ 0.
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
E = 3(6^2)
E = 3(36)
And your answer is E = 108 :)
