Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

14

Convert 25% into fraction with method please answer 10 POINTZ

2 answers:

scZoUnD [109]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

It will be 1/4 if simplified as well.

Step-by-step explanation:

First it will be written as 25/100 because % = 100. After u have 25/100, u will start dividing both numbers with 25. u will get 1/4.

Rainbow [258]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

1/4

Hope that this helps!

You might be interested in

I need help on this one please :)

madreJ [45]

Line DE is 4 squares and Line BC is 8 squares.

The length of line DE is 1/2 of line BC

3 0

3 years ago

Olivia received a $700 signing bonus when she accepted a job as a nurse. If she makes $24 an hour, which equation models Olivia'

yan [13]

<span> y = 24x + 700 would be an accurate answer

Hope this helps!</span>

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

"Mindy has a piece of string that is 5 1/2yd long. She cuts it into pieces that are each 1/2 yd long. Solve the equation 5 1/2 =

Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Mindy has a piece of string that is 5 1/2yd long. She cuts it into pieces that are each 1/2 yd long. Solve the equation 5 1/2 = 1/2x to find out how many pieces of string, x, she gets. Show your work

6 0

2 years ago

What radian measure is equivalent to 900°?<br> 5n<br> 10n<br> 1/5n<br> 9n

Sergeu [11.5K]

9n is the answer to this question

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,

Mama L [17]

Answer:

$(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

$(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$n = 8$ --- 8 friends

$p = 15\%$ --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

$P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}$

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

$P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}$

$P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}$

$P(x = 0) = 0.85^8$

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

Solving (b): $P(x \ge 1)$

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

$P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1$

Rewrite as:

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)$

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725$

$P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

Solving (c): $P(x\le 2)$ --- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

We have:

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}$

$P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7$

$P(x = 1) = 0.3847$

$P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}$

$P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6$

$P(x = 2) = 0.2376$

So:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

4 0

3 years ago