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stellarik [79]
3 years ago
10

NEED HELPP! (05.02 MC) Using logarithmic properties, what is the solution to log11(y + 8) + log114 = log1160? Show all necessary

steps.
Mathematics
1 answer:
irinina [24]3 years ago
6 0

Using logarithmic properties, the solution to the given logarithmic equation is y = 7

<h3>Solving Logarithmic equations</h3>

From the question, we are to determine the solution to the given equation

The given equation is

log_{11}(y+8) + log_{11}(4) = log_{11}(60)

Applying the product law of logarithms, we get

log_{11}(y+8) \times (4) = log_{11}(60)

This gives

log_{11}(4y+32)  = log_{11}(60)

Applying the equality law of logarithm, we get

4y + 32 = 60

4y = 60-32

4y =28

∴ y = 28/4

y = 7

Hence, the solution to the given logarithmic equation is y = 7

Learn more on Solving logarithmic equations here: brainly.com/question/237323

#SPJ1

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4 years ago
Solve for x
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

Option (2). x = 20°

Step-by-step explanation:

In the figure attached,

ΔABC is an equilateral triangle.

By the property of equilateral triangle, all sides of the triangle are equal and measure of all angles of the triangle is 60°.

By this property,

m∠B = 60°

and y = 46 - 16 = 30

By applying Sine rule in ΔBCD,

\frac{\text{sin}60}{BD}=\frac{\text{sin}80}{46}=\frac{\text{sin}(\angle CBD)}{DC}

\frac{\text{sin}80}{46}=\frac{\text{sin}(\angle CBD)}{y}

sin(∠CBD) = \frac{30\times \text{sin}80}{46}

                 = 0.6423

m∠CBD = 39.96

              ≈ 40°

m∠ABD = 60° - 40°

             = 20°

Therefore, Option (2). 20° will be the answer.

5 0
3 years ago
A bag contains 6 red and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the drawn is white?
wel

If it's three or more, the probability is 100%.

However, I will assume that you intend to draw only two balls and that you don't replace the first ball in the bag for the second draw.

So you draw one ball. The probability that it's red is 8/14 = 4/7.

You draw again. The probability of getting a second red is 7 (red balls remains) / 13 (balls remaining).

Assuming that the results of the first and second draws are independent,the probability of drawing two red balls is therefore (4/7)*(7/13) = 4/13.

Now, suppose instead of a red on the first draw you got white. The probability of this is 6/14 = 3/7.

Given the first ball is white, the probability of drawing a second white is 5/13.

So the probability of drawing two whites is (3/7)*(5/13) = 15/91.

The outcomes of drawing two reds or two whites are independent of each other, so you can add the probabilities to get the probability of drawing two balls of the same colour, i.e.

4/13 + 15/91 = 43/91

If you prefer to express it as a percentage, it's approximately 47.25%.

5 0
4 years ago
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guapka [62]

Answer:

Please mark be brainliest and I hoped this helped!

x = 45°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is an isosceles triangle, that means that x, and the angle opposite from x, are the same. We take 135° and subtract that from 180°. That gives us 45°. Since the angle opposing x is 45°, then x is 45° as well.

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3 years ago
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likoan [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

These three measures or variability are greater than 5°F.

hope this helped.

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2 years ago
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