Answer:
$2.85
Step-by-step explanation:
30×2=60
30+15=45
60+(45×5)=?
45×5=225
60+225=285
$2.85
Cuz every 100cents is one dollar
Answer:
$8.80
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to find the new price, you need to add 60% of the original price (5.50) to the original price. You have two options:
1) multiply $5.50*0.6 to get 60% of the original price. You would get $3.30. Then add $3.30+$5.50, which equals $8.80. This way takes longer but shows you all the steps.
2) The shorter way is to simply multiply $5.50*1.6, which also equals $8.80. This works because the "1" automatically adds the 5.50 to 60% of the original price, this way you don't have to multiply then add.
If you don't understand how the second way works or your teacher taught you #1, just do it the first way.
Answer:
c) Is not a property (hence (d) is not either)
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the chi square distribution with k degrees of freedom has this formula

Where N₁ , N₂m ....
are independent random variables with standard normal distribution. Since it is a sum of squares, then the chi square distribution cant take negative values, thus (c) is not true as property. Therefore, (d) cant be true either.
Since the chi square is a sum of squares of a symmetrical random variable, it is skewed to the right (values with big absolute value, either positive or negative, will represent a big weight for the graph that is not compensated with values near 0). This shows that (a) is true
The more degrees of freedom the chi square has, the less skewed to the right it is, up to the point of being almost symmetrical for high values of k. In fact, the Central Limit Theorem states that a chi sqare with n degrees of freedom, with n big, will have a distribution approximate to a Normal distribution, therefore, it is not very skewed for high values of n. As a conclusion, the shape of the distribution changes when the degrees of freedom increase, because the distribution is more symmetrical the higher the degrees of freedom are. Thus, (b) is true.
Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:
Let Cost price ( C.P ) be x
<u>Finding </u><u>the </u><u>Marked </u><u>price </u><u>and </u><u>selling </u><u>price </u>
Marked price = 
⇒
⇒
⇒
⇒ ( i )
Selling price = 
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⇒
⇒
⇒
⇒
⇒ ( ii )
<u>Finding </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>x </u><u>(</u><u> </u><u>Cost </u><u>price </u><u>)</u>

⇒
⇒
⇒
⇒
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⇒
Value of x ( cost price ) = Rs 1250
<u>Now</u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>Replacing </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>x </u><u>in </u><u>(</u><u> </u><u>i </u><u>)</u><u> </u><u>in </u><u>order </u><u>to </u><u>find </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>marked </u><u>price</u>

⇒
⇒
<u>Replacing </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>x </u><u>in </u><u>(</u><u> </u><u>ii </u><u>)</u><u> </u><u>in </u><u>order </u><u>to </u><u>find </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>selling </u><u>price</u>

⇒
⇒
Thus , Marked price of the fan = Rs 1500
Selling price of the fan = Rs 1230
Hope I helped!
Best regards!!