It is True, In a defined benefits plan, the employer bears the investment risks in funding a future retirement income benefit.
Who bears the chance in defined benefits plan?
defined benefits plan also are known as pension plans. Employers sponsor defined benefit plans and promise the plan's investments will provide you with a specified monthly gain at retirement. The employer bears the funding dangers.
What's a defined benefits plan?
An organization-subsidized retirement plan wherein employee benefits are taken care of out based on a system the use of factors which includes income history and length of employment.
What's the risk of defined benefits plan?
Word that pension danger arises handiest with defined benefits plan. A defined-advantage 401-k plan promises to pay a particular (defined) gain to retired employees. to fulfill this obligation, the organization ought to invest wisely so that it has the finances to pay the promised advantages.
Who benefits most from a defined benefits plan?
More youthful personnel have longer for the cash to grow. contributions may be deductible depending on income limits. Contributions aren't deductible, they may be made with after tax dollars and can keep past seventy two if nonetheless running.
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Answer:
an increase in the operating income by $16,322
Explanation:
The computation of the impact in the operating income is given below:
Variable cost of 75 units (1300000 × 75 ÷ 12700) 7,678
Sale price of 75 units (75 × 320) 24,000
Increase in operating income (24000 - 7678) $16,322
hence, the impact in the operating income is that there is an increase in the operating income by $16,322
Answer:
c. $4,025,200
Explanation:
The computation of the total cash receipts from sales and collections in April month is shown below:
= April sales × cash sales percentage + April sales × credit sales percentage × collection month percentage + March sales credit sales percentage × Following month collection percentage
= $4,000,000 ×30% + $4,000,000 × 70% × 40% + $4,200,000 × 70% × 58%
= $1,200,000 + $1,120,000 + $1,705,200
= $4,025,200
Since cash sales are 30% , so the credit sales would be 70%
I believe the answer is B! Let me know if I am right:)
Answer:$27.78
Explanation:
Expected value of debt after one year = (40* .60)+(15*.40)
= 24 + 6
=$ 30
Current value of debt = Value at 1year / (1+r)^n
= 30/ (1+.08)^1
= 30 / 1.08
=$ 27.78
