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Lady_Fox [76]
3 years ago
12

Please help with this Khan Question :)

Mathematics
1 answer:
astraxan [27]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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c)  For this part, we'll say that the inductive hypothesis would be assuming that k! < k^k for some k ≥ 1

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(k + 1)! = (k + 1)k!  

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Since k < k+1 we have:

= (k + 1)^k+1

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