True, Because you can always bring your own lunch to School/Work that would most likely be less expensive.<span />
Answer:
a. $5,000 unfavorable
b. $24,600 favorable
Explanation:
The computations are shown below:
a. Variable overhead efficiency variance = Standard rate × (Standard hours - Actual hours)
where,
Standard variable overhead rate is $50
Actual hours is 5,500 direct labor hours
Standard hours is
= 6,000 ÷ 300 × 270 = 5,400 direct labor hours
So, the Variable overhead efficiency variance is
= $50 × (5,400 direct labor hours - 5,500 direct labor hours)
= $50 × - 100 direct labor hours
= $5,000 unfavorable
b. And, variable overhead spending variance is
= (Actual hours × Standard rate) - Actual cost
= (5,500 hours × $50) - $250,400
= $275,000 - $250,400
= $24,600 favorable
On March 1, the due date of the note, Hansen will record interest expense as a <u>debit</u> in the amount of $600.
Interest expense is the cost associated with borrowing money in the form of loans, bonds, and lines of credit. It is the amount paid to lenders for the use of their money and is typically reported as a line item on an income statement.
On March 1, Hansen will record interest expense as a debit in the amount of $600 ($100,000 x 6% x 90/360). The adjusting entry on December 31 was to record the interest accrued on the note between December 1 and December 31 ($100,000 x 6% x 30/360 = $500). Therefore, the interest payable on March 1 is the amount of the loan times the interest rate times the number of days outstanding ($100,000 x 6% x 90/360 = $600).
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Answer and Explanation:
The focus on traditional financial statements is accounting data rather than cash flow. At the same time, it is also important for investors, managers, and stock analysts.
Moreover, the decision who makes and the security analyst need to change the data of the financial statements i.e provided to them according to the needs of the company
It becomes more important than the net income
Therefore for computing the free cash flow, the following equation is required
Free cash flow = EBIT × (1 - tax rate) + depreciation & amortization expenses - (capital expenditure + change in net operating working capital)
Answer:
Activity Variance= $ 58,590 Adverse
Explanation:
<em>The overhead activity variance is the difference between the actual manufacturing overheads and the standard cost of the actual machine hours </em>.
$
7,750 hours should have cost ( 7,750× $50) 387,500
Actual manufacturing overheads <u>446,090</u>
Activity Variance <u> 58,590 Adverse</u>
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