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Ksju [112]
4 years ago
11

The journal entry a company uses to record accrued vacation privileges for its employees at the end of the year is:________.

Business
1 answer:
Lilit [14]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C. debit Vacation Pay Expense; credit Vacation Pay Payable

Explanation:

In as much as the name implies, debit vacation pay expense of the said worker is moved to his/her credit vacation pay payable. And cases like this comes up when the said worker is about to go on a vacation. This vacation pay expense is been considered a liability because it causes depreciation in equity.

Therefore accrued vacation privileges of an employer are times in which a worker has to go on a free working period that in some cases can be a vacation which deals with a debit Vacation Pay Expense; credit Vacation Pay Payable by the end of the year.

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Which of the following proposes that job satisfaction has a positive effect on customer service, which flows on to shareholder f
mezya [45]

Answer:

Service profit Chain model

Explanation:

A service profit chain model is a theory that explains how the job satisfaction of employees influences the profitability(or profit making) of a company through indirect means such as service quality, customer loyalty, among other things.  

Cheers

7 0
3 years ago
3. Andria, an attorney, has a personal injury case which is set for trial next week. She needs a good doctor to testify on behal
Fittoniya [83]

Answer

The agreement is contingent agreement and not the unenforceable.

Explanation:

Under a contingent agreement, certain actions are taken resulting from occurring or non-occurring of certain conditions. Here outcomes are dependent upon happening of events.

3 0
4 years ago
Which of these outcomes become more likely for someone with strong personal finance skills? Check all that apply.
expeople1 [14]
There were no choices.

However, to give some points on people with strong finance skills can manage a financial standing. 

They would probably know when to spend or not depending on the cash, savings or earnings that they have. They can have estimations whether they are financially capable of every purchase.  One other thing is they know the difference between a want and a need so they are focused on the needs which are priorities. 
6 0
4 years ago
Why was it sometimes difficult to balance a checking account to a statement?
Juliette [100K]
Because sometimes the check written after the statement closing dates.

Lets say a company do a closing statement on December 26.

 A check written between that date until the end of period ( December 26 - December 31), that transaction simply won't appear on the book because the company already closed the statement on December 26
6 0
3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun
Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

8 0
3 years ago
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