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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
13

What is the equation of the line, in slope-intercept form, that passes through (3, -1) and (-1, 5)?

Mathematics
1 answer:
BigorU [14]3 years ago
7 0
Y=-3/2x+7/2 is the answer!
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A card is drawn at random from a deck of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the card drawn is:
melomori [17]

probability that the card drawn is:

  1. an ace or a king  = 0.1538
  2. a king or a diamond = 0.3269

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

Here we have , A card is drawn at random from a deck of 52 playing cards. We need to find that Find the probability that the card drawn is:

  • an ace or a king

A deck of standard 52 cards contain four aces. There are four kings in a standard deck of playing cards. So ,we need to find probability that card drawn is either a ace or king i.e.

probability = \frac{Number-of-(ace+king)-cards}{total-number-of-cards}

⇒ probability = \frac{Number-of-(ace+king)-cards}{total-number-of-cards}

⇒ probability = \frac{8}{52}

⇒ probability = 0.1538

  • a king or a diamond

A deck of standard 52 cards contain four kings. There are 13 Diamonds in a standard deck of playing cards. So ,we need to find probability that card drawn is either a ace or king i.e.

probability = \frac{Number-of-(ace+king)-cards}{total-number-of-cards}

⇒ probability = \frac{Number-of-(ace+king)-cards}{total-number-of-cards}

⇒ probability = \frac{(13+4=17)}{52}

⇒ probability = \frac{(17)}{52}

⇒ probability =0.3269

Therefore, probability that the card drawn is:

  1. an ace or a king  = 0.1538
  2. a king or a diamond = 0.3269
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If 1 inch is 500 miles, then 4 inches is how many miles?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

2,000 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

1 inch=500 miles

This can be rewritten as:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}

This is representative of a unit rate, as we have a 1 in the denominator. To calculate the number of miles in 4 inches, simply multiply the unit rate by 4:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}*4=

\frac{2000 miles}{4 inches}

This can rewritten as:

4inches=2000miles

Therefore, there are 2,000 miles in 4 inches.

-

We can check our solution by simplifying the fraction \frac{2000 miles}{4 inches} by dividing both 2000 and 4 by 4 to see if we achieve the unit rate:

\frac{500 miles}{1 inch}

Since this is in fact the unit rate, our solution is correct!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the least common multiple of the numbers 8 and 12?
faltersainse [42]
The least common multiple is 24

8*3 gets you 24
12*2 gets you 24 as well

Hope this helps
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Parallelogram efgh has been reflected across the x axis and then rotated 180 degrees around the origin. which of the following t
Brilliant_brown [7]
You are correct, it would be a reflection across the y-axis. I am great at visualizing but for those who are not (Not saying you) all they have to do is cut out a parallelogram and mimic the movements.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please helppp why is he right or wrong!!
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

We cannot agree with Andre because x = 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the diagram is a weighing scale which can also be represented as an equation having two sides that is balanced. We can express the situation as follows using equation:

x + 2 = 5

Solve for x

x + 2 - 2 = 5 - 2 (subtraction property of equality)

x = 3

If you plug in the value of x on the diagram given, the scale becomes balance on each side.

Therefore, x = 3. Andre is wrong and we cannot agree with Andre.

7 0
3 years ago
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