Y=-6x+2 Rewrite in standard form
2 answers:
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Answer:
p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%
Step-by-step explanation:
For each candy, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is blue, or it is not. The probability of a candy being blue is independent of any other candy. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
20% are blue
This means that
Sample of 4
This means that .
Which of the following would find p(b=1)?
P(X = 1). So
So, p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%