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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
7

How to do 1.36 divided by 0.08

Mathematics
2 answers:
Anvisha [2.4K]3 years ago
7 0
17 is your answer for your question
Aleonysh [2.5K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Shift the decimals of both 1.36 and 0.08 to the right by 2 decimal places. (This is needed to convert 0.08 to 8, since long division must divide by a whole number.)

1.36 ÷ 8

2) use algorithm method.

3) Solve.

17

therefor, the answer is 17.

I also added the picture.

hope it helps.

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Step-by-step explanation:

An arithmetic sequence is given by relation as follows :

A(n)=-6+(n-1)\dfrac{1}{5}

For the first term, put n = 1. So,

A(1)=-6+(1-1)\dfrac{1}{5}\\\\A(1)=-6

For fourth term, put n = 4. So,

A(4)=-6+(4-1)\dfrac{1}{5}\\\\A(4)=\dfrac{-27}{5}\\\\A(4)=-5\dfrac{2}{5}

For tenth term, put n = 10. So,

A(10)=-6+(10-1)\dfrac{1}{5}\\\\A(10)=-6+\dfrac{9}{5}\\\\A(10)=\dfrac{-21}{5}\\\\A(10)=-4\dfrac{1}{5}

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

1. Let's review the information provided to us to answer the question correctly:

Number of tickets sold at the raffle = 1,500

Price of each ticket = $ 2

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Let's answer the question using a probability distribution for the gains, this way:

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Now, we calculate the mean for all the tickets (winners and non-winners), this way:

Expected value = [(1,496 * -2) + (1 * 498) + (1 * 248) + ( 1 * 148) + ( 1 * 73)]/1,500

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<u>The expected value of every ticket is a loss of $ 1.35</u>

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