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Anika [276]
3 years ago
14

Given an orifice meter with the dimensions in lab, a flow rate of 60 lbm/min and a differential pressure of 200 inches of water,

the flow coefficient of the meter would be closest to Group of answer choices
Engineering
1 answer:
monitta3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Theoretically impossible

Explanation:

Given that:

The mass flow rate = 60 lbm/min

The differential pressure = 200 inches

The flow rate Q is can be expressed by the formula:

Q = K.A\sqrt{2g \Delta h}

where;

K = Discharge coefficient

A = area

Δh = Head drop

g = gravity

From the given parameter, the area is unknown.

Therefore, the flow coefficient of the meter will be theoretically impossible to be determined.

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What is the magnitude of the maximum stress that exist at the tip of an internal crack having a radius of curvature of 1.9 x 10-
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

2800 [MPa]

Explanation:

In fracture mechanics, whenever a crack has the shape of a hole, and the stress is perpendicular to the orientation of such, we can use a simple formula to calculate the maximum stress at the crack tip

\sigma_{m} = 2 \sigma_{p} (\frac{l_{c}}{r_{c}})^{0.5}

Where \sigma_{m} is the magnitude of he maximum stress at the tip of the crack, \sigma_{p} is the magnitude of the tensile stress, l_{c} is 1/2 the length of the internal crack, and r_{c} is the radius of curvature of the crack.

We have:

r_{c}=1.9*10^{-4} [mm]

l_{c}=3.8*10^{-2} [mm]

\sigma_{c}=140 [MPa]

We replace:

\sigma_{m} = 2*(140 [MPa])*(\frac{\frac{3.8*10^{-2} [mm]}{2}}{1.9*10^{-4} [mm]})^{0.5}

We get:

\sigma_{m} = 2*(140 [MPa])*(\frac{\frac{3.8*10^{-2} [mm]}{2}}{1.9*10^{-4} [mm]})^{0.5}=2800 [MPa]

5 0
3 years ago
The phasor technique makes it pretty easy to combine several sinusoidal functions into a single sinusoidal expression without us
devlian [24]

Answer:

The phasor technique can't be applied directly in the following cases:

a) 45 sin(2500t – 50°) + 20 cos(1500t +20°)

b) 100 cos(500t +40°) + 50 sin(500t – 120°) – 120 cos(500t + 60°)

c)  -100 sin(10,000t +90°) + 40 sin(10, 100t – 80°) + 80 cos(10,000t)

d)  75 cos(8t+40°) + 75 sin(8t+10°) – 75 cos(8t + 160°)

Explanation:

For a) and c), it is not possible to use the phasor technique, due this technique is only possible when the sinusoidal signals to be combined are all of the same frequency.

This is due to the vector representing a signal is showed as a fixed vector in the graph( which magnitude is equal to the amplitude of the sinusoid and his angle is the phase angle with respect to cos (ωt)), which is rotating at an angular speed equal to the angular frequency of the sinusoidal signal that represents, like a radius that shows a point rotating in a circular uniform movement.

This rotating vector represents a sinusoidal signal, in the form of a cosine (as the real part of the complex function e^{j(wt+\alpha)}), so it is not possible to combine with functions expressed as a sine, even though both  have  the same frequency.

If we look at the graphs of cos (ωt) and sin (ωt) we can say that the sin lags the cos in 90º, so we can say the following:

sin (ωt) = cos (ωt-90º)

This means that in order to be able to represent a sine function  as a cosine, we need to rotate it 90º in the plane clockwise.

This is the reason why before doing this transformation, it is not possible to use the phasor technique for b) and d).

8 0
3 years ago
A wheel has an initial clockwise angular velocity of 10 rad/sec and a constant angular acceleration of 3 rad/sec2. What time is
tino4ka555 [31]
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7 0
3 years ago
Air at 1600 K, 30 bar enters a turbine operating at steady state and expands adiabatically to the exit, where the pressure is 2.
djyliett [7]

Solution :

The isentropic efficiency of the turbine is given as :

$\eta = \frac{\text{actual work done}}{\text{isentropic work done}}$

  $=\frac{m(h_1-h_2)}{m(h_1-h_{2s})}$

  $=\frac{h_1-h_2}{h_1-h_{2s}}$

The entropy relation for the isentropic process is given by :

$0=s^\circ_2-s^\circ_1-R \ln \left(\frac{P_2}{P_1}\right)$

$\ln \left(\frac{P_2}{P_1}\right)=\frac{s^\circ_2-s^\circ_1}{R}$

$ \frac{P_2}{P_1}=exp\left(\frac{s^\circ_2-s^\circ_1}{R}\right)$

$\left(\frac{P_2}{P_1}\right)_{s=constant}=\frac{P_{r2}}{P_{r1}}$

Now obtaining the properties from the ideal gas properties of air table :

At $T_1 = 1600 \  K,$

$P_{r1}=791.2$

$h_1=1757.57 \ kJ/kg$

Calculating the relative pressure at state 2s :

$\frac{P_{r2}}{P_{r1}}=\frac{P_2}{P_1}$

$\frac{P_{r2}}{791.2}=\frac{2.4}{30}$

$P_{r2}=63.296$

Obtaining the properties from Ideal gas properties of air table :

At $P_{r2}=63.296$,  $T_{2s}\approx 860 \ K$

Considering the isentropic relation to calculate the actual temperature at the turbine exit, we get:

  $\eta=\frac{h_1-h_2}{h_1-h_{2s}}$

$\eta=\frac{c_p(T_1-T_2)}{c_p(T_1-T_{2s})}$

$\eta=\frac{T_1-T_2}{T_1-T_{2s}}$

$0.9=\frac{1600-T_2}{1600-860}$

$T_2= 938 \ K$

So, at $T_2= 938 \ K$, $h_2=975.66 \ kJ/kg$

Now calculating the work developed per kg of air is :

$w=h_1-h_2$

  = 1757.57 - 975.66

  = 781 kJ/kg

Therefore, the temperature at the exit is 938 K and work developed is 781 kJ/kg.

4 0
3 years ago
25 An 8-bit computer uses 2's complement to store negative numbers. The range of numbers that can be
Inga [223]

Answer:

-128 to +127

Explanation:

8-bits = 2⁸ = 256 possible values

Half of those will be positive and the other half will be negative.

So 128 positive number and -128 negative numbers. But we must also include

the value 0, so now the range will be from -128 to 127

5 0
4 years ago
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