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3 years ago

CAN SOMEONE PLEASE WRITE A EQUATION OF THIS LINE!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

serious [3.7K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer (assuming it can be in slope-intercept form):

y = -x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

When knowing the slope of a line and its y-intercept, you can write an equation to represent it in slope-intercept form, or y = mx + b format. Substitute the m and b for real values.

1) First, find the slope of the equation, or m. Pick any two points from the line and substitute their x and y values into the slope formula, $m = \frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}$ . I chose the points (0, -1) and (-1, 0):

$m = \frac{(0)-(-1)}{(-1)-(0)} \\m = \frac{0+1}{-1-0} \\m = \frac{1}{-1} \\m = -1$

Thus, the slope is -1.

2) Now, find the y-intercept, or b. The y-intercept of a line is the point at which the line crosses the y-axis. By reading the graph, we can see that the line intersects the y-axis at the point (0,-1), therefore that must be the y-intercept.

3) Now, substitute the found values into the y = mx + b formula. Substitute -1 for m and -1 for b:

$y = -x -1$

vampirchik [111]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

hirap nyan ahhh

Step-by-step explanation:

math hehehhehe

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crimeas [40]

Answer:

a) $X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The expected value is given by this formula:

$E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2$

b) $P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The expected value is given by this formula:

$E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2$

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X=0)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And using this function we got:

$P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815$

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Neporo4naja [7]

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3 years ago

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suter [353]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

simply arrange the given expressions into the traditional way of adding numbers like 1 + 1 but vertically like : 1

1 +

which is equivalent to

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______

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2 years ago