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Arisa [49]
2 years ago
8

During his presentation, Alexis Ohanian admits that the Internet community's interest in "Mister Splashy Pants" was less about "

altruism" and more about "doing something cool." What does altruism mean?
Mathematics
1 answer:
zimovet [89]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

altruism means selfrecklessness,

Step-by-step explanation:

example: a guy is walking down the street when he sees a guy being robbed, he then very selfrecklessnessly takes a Winchester M1887 combat shotgun out from his guitar and proceeds to wack the man trying to rob the man with the good stuff on top of his head with the broad end of his shotgun while calling 911 with his remote controlled jenga blocks

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Natali [406]
I’m pretty sure this is correct.

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3 years ago
Number 3 write a relation for the perimeter of the hexagon with side length
olasank [31]

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
10 normal six sided dice are thrown.Find the probability of obtaining at least 8 failuresif a success is 5 or 6.
erastova [34]

Answer:

0.2992 = 29.92% probability of obtaining at least 8 failures.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each dice, there are only two possible outcomes. Either a failure is obtained, or a success is obtained. Trials are independent, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A success is 5 or 6.

A dice has 6 sides, numbered 1 to 6. Since a success is 5 or 6, the other 4 numbers are failures, and the probability of failure is:

p = \frac{4}{6} = 0.6667

10 normal six sided dice are thrown.

This means that n = 10

Find the probability of obtaining at least 8 failures.

This is:

P(X \geq 8) = P(X = 8) + P(X = 9) + P(X = 10)

So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 8) = C_{10,8}.(0.6667)^{8}.(0.3333)^{2} = 0.1951

P(X = 9) = C_{10,9}.(0.6667)^{9}.(0.3333)^{1} = 0.0867

P(X = 10) = C_{10,10}.(0.6667)^{10}.(0.3333)^{0} = 0.0174

Then

P(X \geq 8) = P(X = 8) + P(X = 9) + P(X = 10) = 0.1951 + 0.0867 + 0.0174 = 0.2992

0.2992 = 29.92% probability of obtaining at least 8 failures.

8 0
3 years ago
Analyze the student’s work. Is the answer correct? Explain.<br><br> Ik its not B
neonofarm [45]

Answer:

im not 100 percent sure but i think he right

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
How many times longer is the wavelength of a sound wave with a frequency of 20 waves per second than the wavelength of a sound w
sergejj [24]

The sound wave with a <u>frequency of 20</u> waves/sec is 800 longer than the wavelength of a sound wave with a <u>frequency of 16,000</u> waves/sec

<h3>Calculating wavelength </h3>

From the question, we are to determine how many times longer is the first sound wave compared to the second sound water

Using the formula,

v = fλ

∴ λ = v/f

Where v is the velocity

f is the frequency

and λ is the wavelength

For the first wave

f = 20 waves/sec

Then,

λ₁ = v/20

For the second wave

f = 16,000 waves/sec

λ₂ = v/16000

Then,

The factor by which the first sound wave is longer than the second sound wave is

λ₁/ λ₂ = (v/20) ÷( v/16000)

= (v/20) × 16000/v)

= 16000/20

= 800

Hence, the sound wave with a <u>frequency of 20</u> waves/sec is 800 longer than the wavelength of a sound wave with a <u>frequency of 16,000</u> waves/sec

Learn more on Calculating wavelength here: brainly.com/question/16396485

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
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