Answer:
false
Explanation:
False. The location-specific advantages argument associated with John Dunning does help explain the direction of FDI. However, the location-specific advantages argument does not explain why firms prefer FDI to licensing or to exporting.
quizlet
Answer:
a.
Date Account Title Debit Credit
Dec, 31. 2020 Cash $1,000
Customer Deposits $1,000
b.
Date Account Title Debit Credit
Dec, 31. 2020 Customer deposits $800
Cash $800
c.
Date Account Title Debit Credit
Dec, 31. 2020 Customer deposits $120
Breakage Revenue $120
Cost of goods sold(0.8 * 120) $ 96
Inventory $ 96
Answer:
The final payment would be of amount $9000
Explanation:
The keywords of the question state that the bank needs an equal amount of money by both of the payment procedures. Hence, no matter which payment method I choose on the outstanding loan, the bank would need a sum of 3x3000 = $9000
Answer:
a. 9%
b. Yes, the firm earning an economic profit of 2%
c. Yes, Industry will see entry or exits
d. Rate of return of economy = 7%
Explanation:
a. Percentage rate of return = Earning ÷ Investment by founders × 100
= $18 ÷ $200 × 100
= 9%
b. Company rate of profit - Rate of profit of economy
= 9% - 7%
= 2% > 0
Yes, the firm earning an economic profit of 2%
c. Yes, Industry will see entry or exits because industry is competitive in nature and would to like to compete to others by satisfying the consumers . In perfect competitive markets there will be no entry or exits and critical characteristics reason companies are free for entry and exit for marginal profits.
d. Industry is competitive , there will be supplier to serve the market and its hard to decide the price of the product.
Hence, the rate of return long run equilibrium earned by firm = Rate of return of economy = 7%
Answer:
The value of the intangible will remain at $350,000
Explanation:
The reason is that the International Accounting Standard IAS-36 says that once the impairment is recognized for the intangible assets it can not be reversed which means that the amount reported would be $350,000. The reason is that it is very rare that the asset gain its value and specially those which are intangible assets. Most of the management in the 1990s-2000 tried to recognize a gain on impairment which was unjustifiable to increase their profits for the period so the standard specifically didn't permitted gain on a previously impaired asset.
