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Vesna [10]
3 years ago
12

Metaline Corp. uses the weighted average method for inventory costs and had the following information available for the year. Th

e number of units transferred to finished goods during the year is: Beginning Work in Process (40% complete, $1,100)200 units Ending inventory of Work in Process (80% complete)400 units Total units started during the year3,200 units Multiple Choice 3,200 units. 3,000 units. 3,400 units. 3,160 units.
Business
1 answer:
sweet-ann [11.9K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>The weighted average method blends the costs and units of the previous period with the costs and units of the current period.</u>

Units completed in the period + Equivalent units in ending inventory WIP (units*%completion) = Equivalent units of production

Units completed= (3,200 + 200) - 400= 3,000

Equivalent units of production= 3,000 + 400*0.8

Equivalent units of production= 3,320 units

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OLga [1]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Price elasticity measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded or supplied of a good to a change in its price. It is computed as the percentage change in quantity demanded—or supplied—divided by the percentage change in price.

Elasticity can be described as elastic—or very responsive—unit elastic, or inelastic—not very responsive.

Elastic demand or supply curves indicate that the quantity demanded or supplied responds to price changes in a greater than proportional manner.

An inelastic demand or supply curve is one where a given percentage change in price will cause a smaller percentage change in quantity demanded or supplied.

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8 0
3 years ago
What is the present value of the following cash flows at a discount rate of 9 percent?
frutty [35]

Answer:

Year 1 PV = 91,743.12

Year 2 PV =126,251.99

Year 3 PV =  154,436.70  

Explanation:

<em>The present value of future sum is the amount that ought to be invested today at interest rate compounded annually to equal the sum at the end of a particular period.</em>

The present value of a future sum is given as follows:

PV = FV × PV (1+r)^(-n)

PV - present value

FV - Future value

r- interest rate

n- number of years

Year 1 PV = 100,000× 1.09^(-1) =91,743.12

Year 2 PV = 150,000× 1.09^(-2) =126,251.99

Year 3 PV = 200,000× 1.09^(-3) =  154,436.70  

4 0
3 years ago
If the government removes a binding price floor from a market, then the price received by sellers will
Sauron [17]
It would overall decrease
6 0
3 years ago
A bank that has liabilities of $150 billion and a net worth of $20 billion must have:
Yakvenalex [24]
Had to look for the options and here is my answer. Given that the bank possesses a liability that is worth $150 billion and its net worth is only $20 billion, then this would mean that the bank must have ASSETS OF $170 BILLION. Hope this answers your question.
7 0
3 years ago
When a company does not have any convertible securities or options or warrants outstanding, the company has:
WITCHER [35]

Answer: Simple capital structure

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Hence , from the above we can conclude the right option is C.

6 0
3 years ago
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