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Vesna [10]
3 years ago
12

Metaline Corp. uses the weighted average method for inventory costs and had the following information available for the year. Th

e number of units transferred to finished goods during the year is: Beginning Work in Process (40% complete, $1,100)200 units Ending inventory of Work in Process (80% complete)400 units Total units started during the year3,200 units Multiple Choice 3,200 units. 3,000 units. 3,400 units. 3,160 units.
Business
1 answer:
sweet-ann [11.9K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>The weighted average method blends the costs and units of the previous period with the costs and units of the current period.</u>

Units completed in the period + Equivalent units in ending inventory WIP (units*%completion) = Equivalent units of production

Units completed= (3,200 + 200) - 400= 3,000

Equivalent units of production= 3,000 + 400*0.8

Equivalent units of production= 3,320 units

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On Kyle Thomason’s $400,000.00 loan, the lender charges a 2-point service charge. In this situation, how much will Kyle have to
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

The answer is C

Explanation:

This is an interest expense.

In accounting, the rule is as follows:

Debit side increases asset and expenses while credit side decreases liability, shareholders' equity and sales or revenue.

Credit side decreases asset and expenses while credit side increases liability, shareholders' equity and sales or revenue.

2 points on $400,000 means the interest charge is 2 percent on $400,000.

So we have 0.02 x $400,000

$8,000.

It will be a debit side because it is an increase in expense.

6 0
3 years ago
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A scientist discovers a chemical in certain rocks that kills bacteria when it is mixed with sterile water in a test tube. She ca
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

<em>A scientist discovers a chemical in certain rocks that kills bacteria when it is mixed with sterile water in a test tube. She cannot market extracts that contain this chemical as a dietary supplement, because it </em><em><u>does </u></em><em><u>not</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>contain</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>dietary</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>ingredients</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>

5 0
3 years ago
1. In Year 2, if Blue Hamster has 5,000 shares of preferred stock issued and outstanding, then each preferred share should expec
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

1. In Year 2, if Blue Hamster has 5,000 shares of preferred stock issued and outstanding, then each preferred share should expect to receive <u>$40</u> in annual dividends.

$200,000 / 5,000 = $40

2. If Blue Hamster has 400,000 shares of common stock issued and outstanding, then the firm’s earnings per share (EPS) is expected to change from <u>$12.06</u> in Year 1 to <u>$14.70</u> in Year 2.

$4,822,000 / 400,000 = $12.055

$5,881,750 / 400,000 = $14.70

3. Blue Hamster’s before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization (EBITDA) value changed from <u>$10,500,000</u> in Year 1 to <u>$13,125,000</u> in Year 2.

$30,000,000 - $19,500,000 = $10,500,000

$37,500,000 - $24,375,000 = $13,125,000

4. It is <u>incorrect</u> to say that Blue Hamster’s net inflows and outflows of cash at the end of Years 1 and 2 are equal to the company’s annual contribution to retained earnings. This is because <u>all but one</u> of the item reported in the income statement involve payments and receipts of cash.

depreciation and amortization expenses are not cash outflows.

Explanation:

this question is incomplete and we must prepare the income statement for next year:

sales 37,500,000

variable costs (24,375,000)

<u>fixed costs (1,200,000)</u>

EBIT 11,925,000

<u>interest expense (1,788,750)</u>

Pretax income 10,136,250

<u>income taxes (4,054,500)</u>

net income 6,081,750

preferred stock dividends 200,000

common stock dividends 1,824,525

8 0
4 years ago
quizlet joe's applying for a mortgage that meets all of the fannie mae/freddie mac criteria. based on this, how would we classif
Cloud [144]

This loan is best classify as a <u>conventional mortgage loan</u>.

<h3>What is a conventional mortgage loan?</h3>

This refers to a conforming loan which simply means that it meets the requirements for Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac.

This type of mortgages have a fixed rate of interest and means that the interest rate does not change throughout the life of the loan. Also, they are not guaranteed by the federal government and as a result have stricter lending requirements by banks and creditors.

In conclusion, the entities Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac are government-sponsored enterprises that purchase mortgages from lenders and sell them to investors.

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2 years ago
Select all that apply The weighted average unit contribution margin ______. Multiple select question. is calculated by adding up
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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