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2 years ago

What is the acceleration of a 24 kg mass pushed by a 6 N force

Physics

1 answer:

valentinak56 [21]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

t15 kg

Explanation:

add then subtract blah blah blah

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Hey can anyone please help me with this it’s due in few hours and I’m stuck with ittt

Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

Check body of the explanation

Explanation:

Ooook, quick theory rushdown. if you're at a depth of h in a tank of a fluid, the pressure is the sum of the atmosferic pressure (if the tank is open on top) plus a term which is the product of acceleration of gravity - about $10 ms^-^2$ , the density of whatever you're sinking in, and the depth at which you are. In formula, $p(h) = p_0 + \rho g h$ , and the pressure is the same for every point of the tank at the same depth.

At this point, we can start answering!

1a. The pressure at A is - not counting atmosferic pressure - $1000 * 10 * 1 = 10^4 Pa$ , while in B is $1000*10*2 = 2*10^4 Pa$ , so it's half of it.

1b. The two points are at the same depth, so the pressure is the same - they would be even if the two cilinders weren't linked!

1c. Ditto. Same depth? same pressure!

1d. Usual equation, this time density is 800. Pressure is $800*10*2 = 1,6*10^4 Pa$ : Since the density is 4/5 of water, the pressure is also 4/5 of the one exerted by water

2a. The volume is simply the product, so $4m*3m*2m = 24m^3$

2b. Density is defined as mass over volume, so you simply multiply the volume you found earlier by the density of paraffine: $800* 24 = 1,92 *10^4kg$

2c. Weight is defined as the mass of something times the acceleration due to gravity, in our case it's $1.92 *10^4 kg * 10 ms^{-2} = 1.92 * 10^5 N$

2d. $\rho gh$ again, what a surprise! $800 {kg \over m^3} * 10 {N \over kg}} * 2 m = 1,6* 10^4 {N\over m^2} =1.6*10^4 Pa$

3. Yet again, $\rho gh$ . $1000 {kg \over m^3} * 10 {N \over kg}} * 2 m = 2* 10^4 {N\over m^2} =2*10^4 Pa$

4 0

2 years ago

Describes the relationship between the spectrum of one atom and the spectrum of another?

krok68 [10]

The relationship between the number of visible spectral lines are identical for atoms .However they have unique wavelengths.

Option B

Explanation:

A spectrum is a range of frequencies or a range of wavelengths. The photon energy of the emitted photon is equal to the difference between two states. For every atom there are quite many electron transitions and each has a energy difference.

This difference in wavelength causes spectrum .As each element emission spectrum is unique because each atom has different energy and causes uniqueness in the emission spectrum . Hence, due to the difference in energy it emits different wavelengths.

6 0

2 years ago

Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by

Ulleksa [173]

A) $v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$

B) $r=\frac{mv}{qB}$

C) $T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

D) $\omega=\frac{qB}{m}$

E) $r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}$

Explanation:

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

$\Delta U = qV$

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

$\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

$qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

$F=qvB$

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

$F=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

$qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$ (1)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference ( $2\pi r$ ) and the velocity of the particle (v):

$T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}$ (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

$v=\frac{qBr}{m}$

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

$T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

$\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}$ (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

$T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

$\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}$

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

$v=\frac{qBr}{m}$

which can be rewritten as

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$ (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

$K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}$

And substitutin into (4), we find:

$r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}$

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0

3 years ago

An object is 15 cm in front of a diverging lens with a

Rainbow [258]

A) See ray diagram in attachment (-6.0 cm)

By looking at the ray diagram, we see that the image is located approximately at a distance of 6-7 cm from the lens. This can be confirmed by using the lens equation:

$\frac{1}{q}=\frac{1}{f}-\frac{1}{p}$

where

q is the distance of the image from the lens

f = -10 cm is the focal length (negative for a diverging lens)

p = 15 cm is the distance of the object from the lens

Solving for q,

$\frac{1}{q}=\frac{1}{-10 cm}-\frac{1}{15 cm}=-0.167 cm^{-1}$

$q=\frac{1}{-0.167 cm^{-1}}=-6.0 cm$

B) The image is upright

As we see from the ray diagram, the image is upright. This is also confirmed by the magnification equation:

$h_i = - h_o \frac{q}{p}$

where $h_i, h_o$ are the size of the image and of the object, respectively.

Since q < 0 and p > o, we have that $h_i >0$ , which means that the image is upright.

C) The image is virtual

As we see from the ray diagram, the image is on the same side of the object with respect to the lens: so, it is virtual.

This is also confirmed by the sign of q in the lens equation: since q < 0, it means that the image is virtual

4 0

3 years ago

How big is the image produced by the periscope compared to the size of the object

ipn [44]

As long as both mirrors are set at 45% and the same size then you see the same as is reflected in the upper mirror 

Put a lens in the middle of the tube 

? 

We use mirrors when we drive cars ect 

Normally they are set across from a concealed entrance or one that is hard to see both ways like the inside of a hairpin bend. Sometimes only to help in one direction. 

Sonar which is sound waves that are sent out at a set rate then reflected by objects. The longer the gap between the two the further away it is, They still use periscopes to target boats though. 

The periscope can only reflect what is outside so if you could see it because there is enough light then Yes. If you could not see it because it is dark then No unless you get into Info-Red light or Image Intensifying systems as well

8 0

3 years ago