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yuradex [85]
3 years ago
12

The Chilton Corporation specializes in manufacturing one type of desk lamp. Chilton allocates variable manufacturing overhead co

sts on the basis of machine hours. Chilton budgeted 0.3 machine hours per lamp and allocates overhead at a rate of $1.90 per machine hour. Last year Chilton manufactured 19,000 lamps, used 7,600 machine hours and incurred actual overhead costs of $12,920. What was​ Chilton's variable manufacturing overhead efficiency variance last​ year?
A. ​$9,660 favorable
B. ​$4,140 unfavorable
C. ​$4,140 favorable
D. ​$9,660 unfavorable
Business
1 answer:
Sloan [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Given the above information, we can compute variable manufacturing overhead efficiency variance to be;

= (SA - AQ) × SR

Where

Standard quantity = SQ = 19,000

Actual Quantity = AQ = 7,600

Standard Rate = SR = $1.9

Variable manufacturing overhead efficiency variance

= [(19,000 × 0.3) - 7,600] × $1.9

= (5,700 - 7,600) × $1.9

= $3,610 U

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3 0
3 years ago
"Dave, I know that you are trained to work as a chemist and not to solve scheduling problems. But as lab manager, you are a fron
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7 0
3 years ago
It is theorized that the price per share of a stock is inversely proportional to the prime​ (interest) rate. In January​ 2010, t
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Answer:

price per share in March is $96

Explanation:

given data

January price per share = ​$193.04

January prime rate = 2.75%

march prime rate = 5.50​%

to find out

What was the price per share in March

solution

we know that here price is proportional to prime rate

Price ∝ \frac{1}{rate}   ........1

so price = k ×  \frac{1}{rate}      ...............2

k is constant here

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3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Xtel currently is selling at $66 per share. You buy 500 shares using $20,000 of your own money, borrowing the remai
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Answer:

The percentage loss will be "-9.08%". The further explanation is given below.

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= 20,000

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= 500

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= (500\times 66)-20000

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= 3.63 ($)

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= -3.63

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= -1815

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= -9.08 (%)

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