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3 years ago

When should you replenish a petty cash fund?

Business

1 answer:

faust18 [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

both b and c

Explanation:

A Petty Cash Fund is a convenient way of paying for small transactions. It is mostly applied when making payment using other methods is unreasonable. The money spent should be replenished at least once to take the Petty Cash Fund back to its approved balance. Replenishment is also done when the dollar balance goes below a set level. Replenishing allows the petty cash fund to operate as intended.

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Suppose that when a student is caught lying about completing his homework, he is not allowed to participate in afternoon recess

Gala2k [10]

<span>The correct answer should be D. Negative punishment.</span>

4 0

3 years ago

E-Loan, an online lending service, recently offered 48-month auto loans at 4.5 % compounded monthly to applicants with good c

ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

Therefore I can borrow $19646.12 from E-Loan.

The interest I will pay for the loan is $1,857.88.

Explanation:

The formula of present value is

$PV=PMT(\frac{1-(1+i)^{-n}}{i})$

PMT = The monthly payment = $448

i= Rate of interest per period $=\frac{4.5}{12}\%=0.00375$

n = The number of month = 48 months

Therefore

$PV=448(\frac{1-(1+0.00375)^{-48}}{0.00375})$

≈$19646.12

Therefore I can borrow $19646.12 from E-Loan.

The interest = Paid amount - Loan amount

=$[(448×48)-19646.12]

=$1,857.88

The interest I will pay for the loan is $1,857.88.

6 0

3 years ago

Assume the bid rate of an Australian dollar is $0.60 while the ask rate is $0.61 at Bank Q. Assume the bid rate of an Australian

jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

$16,393.44

Explanation:

Calculation for what would be your gain

Gain=$1,000,000/($0.61 per AUD)*$0.62 per AUD - $1,000,000

Gain=1,639,344*$0.62 per AUD - $1,000,000

Gain=$16,393.44

Therefore what would be your gain if you use $1,000,000 and execute locational arbitrage will be $16,393.44

3 0

3 years ago

Effective SCM requires reducing cost, increasing inventory velocity and compressing cycle time. What of the following is true? 1

-Dominant- [34]

Answer:

The answer is: 4) More frequently than not, the three objectives are compatible.

Explanation:

Toyota is famous for its Just in Time (JIT) management. They are the absolute kings of efficient supply chain management and they were able to do it by making the three objectives compatible. That doesn't mean that they all have to be dealt with at the same time and with the same intensity.

Toyota's first goal was to reduce costs and in order to reduce costs they had to increase their inventory turnover. Then they discovered that in order to keep increasing inventory turnover, they had to compress their cycle time. When they were able to compress their cycle time, their turnover increased even more and their costs were lowered. The system produces continuous feedback and their efficiency keeps increasing.

I once visited one of their factories that produces almost 500 pickup trucks per day and every single work station had available inventory for only 4 trucks; only 4 engines, 16 doors, etc. It is amazing how they do it considering that every 3 minutes one truck is fully produced.

The three objectives are not only compatible, but they are absolutely necessary for the SCM to be effective.

7 0

3 years ago

The current (year 0) price of the shares of Company XYZ is $50. There are 1 million shares outstanding. Next year (year 1)’s div

otez555 [7]

Answer:

1. The dividend per share in year 2 would be $2.16.

The dividend per share in year 3 would be $2.3328

2. The market value of the firm is $50 million

3. The value of the firm next year after the payout is $ 54

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the dividend per share in year 2 and the dividend per share in year 3 we would have to make the following calculation:

dividend per share in year 2=dividend per share in year 1*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 1=$2

Growth Rate=Retention Ratio * ROE

Growth Rate=40% * 20%

Growth Rate=8%

Therefore, dividend per share in year 2=$2*(1+8%)

dividend per share in year 2=$2.16

dividend per share in year 3=dividend per share in year 2*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.16(1´8%)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.3328

2. In order to calculate the current market value of the firm we would have to make the following calculation:

market value of the firm=Currect Share Price * Number of outstanding shares

According to the given data:

Currect Share Price=$50

Number of outstanding shares=1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50*1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50 million

3. In order to calculate the value of the firm next year after the payout we would have to calculate first the rate of return as follows:

value of the firm =dividend per share in year 1/rate of return-growth rate

$50* Rate of Return - 4 = $2

Rate of Return = 6 / 50

Rate of Return =12%

Therefore, value of the firm next year after the payout=dividend per share in year 2/rate of return-growth rate

value of the firm next year after the payout=$2.16/0.12-0.08

value of the firm next year after the payout=$ 54

3 0

3 years ago