Answer:
-35
Step-by-step explanation:
30 x 50
then
1500 divided by 15
15 - 50 =35 ;)
Answer: At 6% = $66,800
At 10% = $34,400
Step-by-step explanation:
Let S be his savings. He divided S into x that goes at 6% and y at 10%
As he put twiced as much at the lower-yielding one, x = 2y
Simple interest is given by: Amount x interest x time
This way I₁ = x . 0.06 . 1 = 0.06x
I₂ = y. 0.10 . 1 = 0.10y
As x = 2y, I₁ = = 0.06 . 2y = 0.12y
As we know that the annual interest was $7348
I₁ + I₂ = 7348
0.12y + 0.10y = 7348
0.22y = 7348
y = 7348/0.22
y = 33,400
As x = 2y, x = 2.33,400 = 66,800
This was he invested $33,400 and $66,800
Answer:
The answer to this question can be defined as follows:
Step-by-step explanation:
In the given question, there is no data available, that's why the last two choices are not answered so, it has no answer so, for the remainder query, please provide the details.
- Unless the supply tail is far more angled to the left, the distribution is normally distorted, therefore the output is considered poor whether it's more angled to the left.
- Whenever the variance is curved, the rate will be equal to a median. Its mean is usually higher than the mean whenever the positive value-weighted. Its mean is generally less than that of the average whenever the variance is negative.
- Its existence throughout the data of exceptionally large or small values affects the median more than the median. Consequently, where the distribution is skewed, that average is the preferred measure of a central trend.