Answer:
1.125
Explanation:
The computation of the value of the bullwhip measure is shown below
As we know that
The Variance of demand = Square of the standard deviation of demand
i.e.
= square of 20
= 400
And, the Variance of orders = 450
Now the
Bullwhip measure is
= The variance of orders ÷ the variance of demand
= 450 ÷ 400
= 1.125
Answer:
i guess you can but don't post any valid information which might expose credit cards or so forth
<span>An opportunity cost is the value or benefit that must be given up to acquire or achieve something else. In this case whatever you choose (Coke, Dr.Pepper or 7-UP) everything would be free , at zero cost. This means that the opportunity cost in this case is zero, because the drink is free.</span>
The criteria for distinguishing between whether an expenditure is a capital item or a deductible expense is the useful life of the item.
If the purchase is going to be used and no longer have value at the end of the reporting period it is an expense for that period. If the item is a capital item it is going to have a longer useful life. In this case the item is depreciated over its useful life, assigning an expense amount to each accounting period that the item has value.
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
