Answer:
A) since the U.S. has a fractional-reserve banking system, the amount of money in the economy depends in part on the behavior of depositors and bankers.
Explanation:
Since US banks operate under a fractional reserve banking system, they have the capacity to create money through the money multiplier, e.g. you deposit $1,000 in bank A, then bank A borrows $850 to Steven and he purchases a new bike from Sarah. Then Sarah deposits the money in bank B, and bank B borrows $722 to George who buys a laptop from Henry. Henry then deposits the money in bank C, and bank C borrows $614 to Susan, and this goes on and on.
The problem that the Fed faces is that in order for the fractional reserve system to work, households must hold their money in banks. Ans that is something that the government cannot control, specially the amount or portion that is deposited. The other players are banks, that ideally should borrow all the money that they are allowed to.
Answer:
335.43 million gallons
Explanation:
price elasticity of demand (PED) = % change in quantity demanded / % change in price
PED = -1.9% / 10% = -0.19, very inelastic
expected price increase $0.40
% change in price = ($3.45 - $3.05) / $3.05 = 13.11%
% change in quantity demanded:
-0.19 = D / 13.11%
D = 2.49%
quantity demanded will decrease by 2.49%, from 344 million gallons to 335.43 million gallons
Answer:
Depreciation for the first year is $10,000
Explanation:
Unit production method is the depreciation method which is based on the output per year of the asset. The asset is depreciated by the ratio of the output for the year to the output expected over whole useful life.
Cost of printer = $60,000
Expected output = 12,000 prints
Prints in the first year = 2,000
Depreciation for the year = Total cost x output for the year / expected output over useful life
Depreciation for the first year = $60,000 x 2,000 / 12,000
Depreciation for the first year = $60,000 x 1/6
Depreciation for the first year = $10,000
Answer:
$1.55
Explanation:
Interest rate parity = (1+Rh) / (1+Rf) = F1 / S0
Rh = rate on home currency here US is home 3% p.a = 3%/4 = 0.75%
Rf= rate on foreign currency here Germany 3.5% p.a = 3.5%/4 = 0.875
F1 = Forward rate
, S0= Spot market rate
So, (1+0.0075) / (1+0.00875) = F1 / 1.56
1.0075/1.00875 = F1 / 1.56
0.998761 = F1 / 1.56
F1 = 0.998761 * 1.56
F1 = 1.55806716
F1 = $1.55
Thus, the 90-day forward rate is $1.55
Answer:
So, in 2010, out of the dividends of $12000, $5000 was distributed to preferred stockholders.
Explanation:
A non cumulative preferred stock is a kind of stock that has a preference in terms of dividend payment over ordinary/common stock. This means that the dividend on the preferred stock is paid first and any remaining amount after dividend payment to this stock is distributable among common stockholders. Furthermore, in case dividends are not paid in a particular year, that year's dividends are not payable in future in case the stock is a non cumulative one. So, the dividends paid to non cumulative preferred stock in 2010 will be,
Dividend per year - Preferred stock = 10000 * 10 * 0.05 = $5000
So, in 2010, out of the dividends of $12000, $5000 was distributed to preferred stockholders.
