Answer:
e. Sunk cost.
Explanation:
As per the given statement, the best appropriate option is sunk cost. As the sunk cost deals with the past cost which is already incurred in the past and it cannot be changed or avoided, neither it can be recovered. Example - Rent expense.
Plus it does not affect the future decisions that means it is irrelevant for decision-making aspects.
Answer:
$69,000
Explanation:
Percentage of shares owned by ABC in Teal's company = 30%
This is an example of equity method investment , and a portion of the attributable income at the end of the year is earned and added to the initial stock.
Attributable income is the remaining income after dividends have been settled.
<u>Workings</u>
The opening carrying value of the shares on ABC balance sheet = 60,000
Profit made at the end of the period = 40,000
Dividends paid = 10,000
Attributable income to share holders = 40000-10000 = 30,000
ABC portion of attributable profit = 30000*30% = 9,000
Carrying value at the end of the year = opening carrying value + portion of the attributable profit
=60000+9000=69000
When GDP is said to be per capita, it means that GDP is being calculated <u>per person. </u>
<h3>What is GDP per capita?</h3>
This refers to the Gross Domestic Product of a nation being divided by the number of people in that nation.
This measure is used to show the productivity of the people in the nation such that a higher figure means that the citizens are more productive.
Find out more on GDP per capita at brainly.com/question/18414212.
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Answer:
E. The FOMC instructs the NY trading desk to sell government bonds on the open market.
Explanation:
FOMC The Federal Open Market Committee is charged under US Laws.
This is controlled through transactions of FOMC,
When Federal Committee (FOMC) purchases bonds from open markets then there is an instant increase in level of reserves in the banking system.
Thereafter, the sale by Federal Committee in the open market tend to decrease the level of reserves in the banking system.
This is directly related to the reserve level.
Answer:
$74.58
Explanation:
The price of share of the Bretton Inc in the given question shall be the present value of all the dividends associated with this share in the future years.
Present value of year 1 dividend=3.31(1+13%)^-1=$2.93
(3.15*1.05)
Present value of year 2 dividend=3.48(1+13%)^-2=$2.73
(3.31*1.05)
Present value of year 3 dividend=3.65(1+13%)^-3=$2.53
(3.48*1.05)
Present value of year 4 dividend=3.83(1+11%)^-4=$2.52
(3.65*1.05)
Present value of year 5 dividend=4.02(1+11%)^-5=$2.39
(3.83*1.05)
Present value of year 6 dividend=4.22(1+11%)^-6=$2.26
(4.02*1.05)
Present value of all the cash flows after 6 year=$59.22
[4.22(1+5%)/(9%-5%)]*(1+11%)^-6
Price of share $74.58
