Answer: See attachment
Explanation:
a. Based on the information in the attachment, the indirect costs that's allocated to the units will be:
Government = 450,000
Corporate = 750,000
The expected revenue that can be generated from the government unit will be:
= 495,000 × (100% + 15%)
= 495,000 × 1.15
= $569250
b. Based on the information given, the indirect costs that's allocated to the units will be:
Government unit = 360,000
Corporate unit = 840,000
The revenue from the government will be:
= 405000 × (100% + 15%)
= 405000 × 115%
= 405000 × 1.15
= $465750
c. If the firm chooses total hours worked as the cost driver, the indirect costs be allocated to the two units as:
Government = 400,000
Corporate unit = 800,000
Revenue from government will be:
= 445000 × 115%
= 445000 × 1.15
= $511750
Check attachment for further explanation.
In a perfectly competitive market, every seller takes the price of its product as set by market conditions.
<h3>
What is a Perfect Competitive Market?</h3>
Perfect competition is an ideal type of market structure where all producers and consumers have full and symmetric information and no transaction costs. There are a large number of producers and consumers competing with one another in this kind of environment.
Perfect competition is a market structure where many firms offer a homogeneous product. Because there is freedom of entry and exit and perfect information, firms will make normal profits and prices will be kept low by competitive pressures.
<h3>What are some examples of Perfectly Competitive Markets?</h3>
3 Perfect Competition Examples
- Agriculture: In this market, products are very similar. Carrots, potatoes, and grain are all generic, with many farmers producing them.
- Foreign Exchange Markets: In this market, traders exchange currencies.
- Online shopping: We may not see the internet as a distinct market.
Thus, we can say that the correct option is B.
Learn more about Perfectly Competitive Markets on:
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Answer:
The solution is given in the table file attached below
Explanation:
Answer:
long-term capital loss 10,000
Explanation:
80,000 purchase
(40,000) accumulate depreciation
40,000 net book value
30,000 sales price
-10,000 loss
This is a long-term capital loss because the assets was in the company possesions for a longer time than 12 months.
Answer:
$16,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount reported for the interest payable is shown below:
= Principal × rate of interest × number of months ÷ (total number of months in a year)
= $800,000 × 8% × (3 months ÷ 12 months)
= $16,000
The three months should be taken from October 1 To November 1 and November 1 to December 31
We simply applied the above formula so that the interest payable amount could come
