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Virty [35]
3 years ago
15

Solve the equation for x: x^2-ax-bx+ab=0

Mathematics
2 answers:
____ [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

x = a

x = b

Step-by-step explanation:

solve the equation for x by finding a, b and c of the quadratic then applying the quadratic formula

Anarel [89]3 years ago
5 0
X= (ab + b^2 / a+b) is the solution of the equation for x
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The slope is 4 and the Y-Intercept is 0.


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A rectangular prism is 4 inches long, 6 inches wide, and has a height of 5 inches. What is its volume?
Strike441 [17]
I think the answer is
B.120 in3
3 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
HELP ME PLEASE !!!!!!!!
german

Answer:

the answer is the top one and the last one. Hope it helped :)

4 0
3 years ago
Please heelllppppppoo
Setler [38]

Answer:

m<r =75

PS=2.1 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

they are equal so you should be able to figure it out eventually

7 0
3 years ago
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