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RUDIKE [14]
3 years ago
14

Am I right? Please tell me

Mathematics
1 answer:
Musya8 [376]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Your wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

Move the bad to the good and move the last one in the good section to bad

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In the diagram below, D G . If angle 3 = 73°, What is angle FDE?​
VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

240°

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Tickets for a rock concert are selling fast! Tim and his 2 friends decide to buy tickets, his dad loans him $20 as well for an e
Blababa [14]

Answer: Each ticket costed $48

Step-by-step explanation: 145 divided by 3 equals 48 1 remainder

4 0
3 years ago
Which of these number lines represents the difference -3-2​
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

Number line D

Step-by-step explanation:

That line goes from 0 to -3 and subtracts 2, as the equation shows.

6 0
3 years ago
Need help pleaseI was bad at math in school so lwant to learn
aleksklad [387]

The probability of an event is expressed as

Pr(\text{event) =}\frac{Total\text{ number of favourable/desired outcome}}{Tota\text{l number of possible outcome}}

Given:

\begin{gathered} \text{Red}\Rightarrow2 \\ \text{Green}\Rightarrow3 \\ \text{Blue}\Rightarrow2 \\ \Rightarrow Total\text{ number of balls = 2+3+2=7 balls} \end{gathered}

The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as

Pr(\text{blue)}\times Pr(blue)

For the first draw:

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue) = }\frac{number\text{ of blue balls}}{total\text{ number of balls}} \\ =\frac{2}{7} \end{gathered}

For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).

Thus,

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue)}=\frac{number\text{ of blue balls left}}{total\text{ number of balls left}} \\ =\frac{1}{6} \end{gathered}

The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6}\times\frac{2}{7} \\ =\frac{1}{21} \end{gathered}

The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} 1-\frac{1}{21} \\ =\frac{20}{21} \end{gathered}

Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\frac{20}{21}

8 0
1 year ago
1. What is the prime factorization of 402? *<br> Your answer
docker41 [41]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Prime factorization requires dividing by primes starting with smallest prime number

402/2=201

201/3=67, 67 is prime so we cannot go further so the prime factorization of 402 is

2X3X67

3 0
3 years ago
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